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A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack before I go to bed each night.
- C. I will have a cup of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will eliminate products that contain dairy from my diet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By stating she will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing meals, the client demonstrates understanding of the need to prioritize eating to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. This choice indicates she recognizes the importance of maintaining adequate nutrition despite food aversions. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding bedtime snacks may worsen nausea. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine in tea can exacerbate nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dairy products are important for calcium and protein intake during pregnancy.
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A nurse is performing a routine assessment on a client who is at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes 4+.
- B. Fundal height 14 cm.
- C. Blood pressure 142/94 mm Hg.
- D. FHR 152/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: FHR 152/min. At 18 weeks gestation, the fetal heart rate (FHR) should be around 140-160 bpm, making a rate of 152/min within the expected range. This indicates normal fetal cardiac activity and development.
A: Deep tendon reflexes are not typically assessed during routine prenatal visits and are not related to gestational age.
B: Fundal height at 18 weeks should be around the level of the umbilicus, which is closer to 20 cm, not 14 cm.
C: Blood pressure of 142/94 mm Hg is elevated and indicates hypertension, which is not expected at 18 weeks gestation.
E, F, G: No other options provided.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. Early decelerations in the PHR.
- C. Temperature 37.4° C (99 3* F).
- D. PHR baseline 170/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PHR baseline 170/min. A baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) of 170/min is considered tachycardia in labor, which may indicate fetal distress. The nurse should report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Contractions lasting 80 seconds (choice A) are within the normal range. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically benign and do not require immediate intervention. A temperature of 37.4° C (choice C) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in active labor. Therefore, choice D is the most concerning and requires immediate attention.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports abdominal cramping.
- B. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation and reports tingling and numbness in right hand.
- C. A client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and reports constipation for the past 4 days.
- D. A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and reports having three bloody noses in the past week.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal cramping in early pregnancy could be a sign of an ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage, both of which are urgent and potentially life-threatening conditions. The nurse should prioritize assessing this client to rule out any serious complications.
Choice B is not as urgent as choice A because tingling and numbness in the hand are likely due to musculoskeletal or nerve compression issues, which are not immediately life-threatening.
Choice C, constipation, is a common issue in pregnancy and is not typically considered an urgent concern unless accompanied by severe symptoms like abdominal pain or bleeding.
Choice D, frequent bloody noses, is not typically an urgent concern in early pregnancy unless it is accompanied by other severe symptoms like dizziness or excessive bleeding.
In summary, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client experiencing abdominal cramping at 11 weeks of gestation due to the potential seriousness of this symptom in early pregnancy.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who is to undergo phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Feed the newborn 1 oz of water every 4 hr.
- B. Apply lotion to the newborn's skin three times per day.
- C. Remove all clothing from the newborn except the diaper.
- D. Discontinue therapy if the newborn develops a rash.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Removing all clothing from the newborn except the diaper during phototherapy is essential as it helps maximize the skin surface area exposed to the light, thus enhancing the effectiveness of the treatment. This allows for better absorption of the light by the skin, aiding in the breakdown of bilirubin.
A: Feeding the newborn water every 4 hours is not directly related to phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia.
B: Applying lotion to the newborn's skin may interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and should be avoided.
D: Discontinuing therapy if a rash develops is not advisable, as a rash is a common side effect of phototherapy and does not necessarily require therapy cessation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Passive descent.
- B. Active.
- C. Early.
- D. Descent.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Descent. At 9 cm dilation, the client is in the second stage of labor, which consists of the descent and birth of the baby. Increasing rectal pressure indicates fetal descent and impending birth. Contractions 2-3 min apart lasting 80-90 seconds are characteristic of the active phase of the second stage of labor. The passive descent phase occurs earlier when the cervix is not fully dilated. The early phase is part of the first stage of labor. Active labor typically begins when the cervix is around 6 cm dilated. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it aligns with the client's symptoms and stage of labor progression.