The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peripheral artery disease. The nurse should expect the client to have:
- A. Intermittent claudication
- B. Edema in the extremities
- C. Warm extremities
- D. Hyperpigmentation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peripheral artery disease reduces blood flow, causing intermittent claudication (leg pain with activity) due to muscle ischemia.
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A 71-year-old client fell and injured her left leg while cooking in the kitchen. Her husband calls the ambulance, and she is taken to the emergency department at a local hospital. X-ray reports confirm that she has an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. Her left leg will require skeletal traction initially and then surgery. The nurse knows that this type of traction will be used:
- A. By inserting pins to provide steady pull on the bone
- B. To suspend the leg in a sling without pull on the extremity
- C. Intermittently to place a pull over the pelvis and lower spine
- D. With weights at both ends of the bed to maintain pull on the upper extremity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skeletal traction is the application of traction directly to bone with the use of pins and wires or tongs for the purpose of providing a strong, steady, continuous longitudinal pull on the bone. It is indicated for preoperative immobilization and positioning of hip and femur fractures. A type of skeletal traction (balanced suspension with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment) uses a sling to support the extremity, but it also uses weights to provide a strong, steady continuous pull on the extremity. A sling is used instead of pins. Pelvic traction provides an intermittent pull over the pelvis and bone, whereas skeletal traction is continuous. Pelvic traction does not use pins. Skeletal traction uses weights at the end of the bed to provide a continuous pull on long bones. Weights are not applied to both ends of the bed.
A client had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. He is concerned about the small amount of blood that is still in his urine. The nurse explains that the blood in his urine:
- A. Should not be there on the second day
- B. Will stop when the Foley catheter is removed
- C. Is normal and he need not be concerned about it
- D. Can be removed by irrigating the bladder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Some hematuria is usual for several days after surgery. The client should not be concerned about it unless it increases.
A first-trimester primigravida is diagnosed with anemia. The nurse should suspect that this anemia is a result of:
- A. Mother's increased blood volume
- B. Mother's decreased blood volume
- C. Fetal blood volume increase
- D. Increase in iron absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Increased maternal blood volume in the first trimester causes dilutional anemia due to a relative decrease in red blood cell concentration.
A male client had a right below-the-knee amputation 4 days ago. His incision is healing well. He has gotten out of bed several times and sat at the side of the bed. Each time after returning to bed, he has experienced pain as if it were located in his right foot. Which nursing measure indicates the nurse has a thorough understanding of phantom pain and its management?
- A. Phantom pain is entirely in the client's mind. The client should be instructed that the pain is psychological and should not be treated.
- B. The basis for phantom pain may occur because the nerves still carry pain sensation to the brain even though the limb has been amputated. The pain is real, intense, and should be treated.
- C. The cause of phantom pain is unknown. The nurse should provide the client with support, promote sleep, and handle the injured limb smoothly and gently.
- D. Phantom pain is caused by trauma, spasms, and edema at the incisional site. It will decrease when postoperative edema decreases. It should be treated with nonnarcotic medication whenever possible.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This statement is entirely false. Phantom pain may be caused by nerves continuing to carry sensation to the brain even though the limb is removed. It is real, intense, and should be treated as ordinary pain would. Although the cause of phantom pain is still unknown, these measures may promote the relief of any type of pain, not just phantom pain. Phantom pain is not caused by trauma, spasms, and edema and will not be relieved by decreasing edema.
A 2-year-old boy is in the hospital outpatient department for observation after falling out of his crib and hitting his head. The nurse calls the physician to report:
- A. Evidence of perineal irritation
- B. Pulse fell from 102 to 96
- C. Pulse increased from 96 to 102
- D. Temperature rose to 102_F rectally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Perineal irritation needs to be addressed, but it is probably not necessary to call the physician. This fall in pulse rate remains within normal limits and is probably insignificant. It is important to monitor for continued change. This rise in pulse rate is probably not significant, but it is important to monitor for continued change. This temperature is above normal limits and needs medical investigation. It may or may not be related to the head injury.
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