The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of glaucoma. Which medication class should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Beta-blockers
- B. Antibiotics
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. Antihistamines
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers, such as timolol, reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production, the primary treatment goal.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following examples should the nurse use to describe bulimia to a group of parents at a local community center?
- A. An adolescent male who uses calorie-counting to maintain his weight in the desirable range for his height.
- B. A college-age male who uses regular exercise to be able to eat and drink what he wants without gaining weight.
- C. A middle-aged female who uses diet pills occasionally to help her lose 10 lb.
- D. A college-age female who binges and then purges to prevent weight gain.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bulimia is characterized by binge eating followed by purging to prevent weight gain.
A client is hospitalized for ingesting an overdose of acetaminophen. The nurse prepares to administer which specific antidote for this medication overdose?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Phytonadione
- C. N-acetylcysteine
- D. Naloxone hydrochloride
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acetylcysteine restores sulfhydryl groups that are depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine reversal. Phytonadione is the antidote for warfarin sodium. Naloxone hydrochloride reverses respiratory depression caused by an opioid.
The nurse is planning preoperative teaching with a client scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which most frequent cause of postoperative pain should the nurse plan to include in the discussion?
- A. Bladder spasms
- B. Bleeding within the bladder
- C. Tension on the Foley catheter
- D. The lower abdominal incision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bladder spasms can occur after this surgery because of postoperative bladder distention or irritation from the balloon on the indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse administers antispasmodic medications as prescribed to treat this type of pain. Options 2 and 3 are not frequent causes of pain. Some surgeons purposefully apply tension to the catheter for a few hours postoperatively to control bleeding. There is no incision with a TURP.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with hematemesis. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
- A. Administer pantoprazole intravenously.
- B. Insert a nasogastric tube.
- C. Administer vitamin K.
- D. Position the client supine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intravenous pantoprazole reduces acid production and stabilizes bleeding in peptic ulcer disease.
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Dry mouth.
- D. Tremors.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Olanzapine commonly causes weight gain, requiring monitoring in clients with schizophrenia.
Nokea