Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
- A. insulin.
- B. poatassium chloride.
- C. furosemide (Lasix)
- D. vasopressin (Pitressin).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
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A client seeks care for hopeless that has lasted for 1 month. To elicit the most appropriate information about this problem, the nurse should ask which question.
- A. “Do you smoke cigarettes, cigars or pipe?”
- B. “Do you eat a lot of red meat?”
- C. “Have you strained your voice recently?”
- D. “Do you eat spicy foods?”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking if the client has strained their voice recently is the most relevant question to assess the issue of hopelessness. Voice strain can be a symptom of underlying emotional distress or mental health concerns, which could be contributing to the client's feelings of hopelessness. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the client's presenting issue and would not provide valuable information in addressing the problem at hand.
What is the primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process?
- A. To collect and analyze data to establish a database
- B. To interpret and analyze data so as to identify health problems
- C. To write appropriate client-centered nursing diagnoses
- D. To design a plan of care for and with the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process (step 3) is to design a plan of care for and with the client. This involves setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals to address the client's health problems. By involving the client in the planning process, it promotes client autonomy and ensures that the plan is tailored to their individual needs and preferences. Options A and B focus on data collection and analysis, which are steps 1 and 2 of the nursing process. Option C refers to nursing diagnosis, which is part of step 2 (diagnosis). Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it pertains to the specific purpose of the outcome identification and planning step.
A patient is admitted with symptoms of a recent weight gain, 3+ pitting edema of his feet, distended neck veins, and crackles in his lungs. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient’s plan of care?
- A. Deficient fluid volume
- B. Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements
- C. Excess fluid volume
- D. Noncompliance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excess fluid volume. This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of fluid overload, such as weight gain, pitting edema, distended neck veins, and crackles in the lungs. These indicate an excess of fluid in the body. Nursing care for this patient should focus on managing fluid balance.
A: Deficient fluid volume is incorrect because the patient is showing signs of fluid overload, not deficit.
B: Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements is incorrect as the symptoms described are related to fluid volume, not nutrition intake.
D: Noncompliance is irrelevant to the patient's current symptoms and does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload.
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
- A. The client’s knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his sexual function
- B. The clients medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood
- C. The clients knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his nervous control
- D. The clients occupational and environmental health hazards
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?
- A. Turn his head to the right and left
- B. Say “ahhh”
- C. Identify whispering in his ears
- D. Follow his finger with his eyes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing the 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves involves assessing eye movements. The trochlear nerve controls downward and inward eye movement, while the abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement. Asking the patient to follow the finger with their eyes tests the function of both nerves simultaneously. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically target the 4th and 6th cranial nerves, making them incorrect options.