The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.
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Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
- A. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released.
- B. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot.
- C. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails.
- D. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before leaving the room is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released. Using a half bow knot to attach the client's wrist restraints allows for quick release in case of an emergency. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client and complying with restraint policies. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice B) would make it difficult to release quickly when needed. Moving the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails (Choice C) does not address the immediate need for a quick release. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist (Choice D) may not be appropriate if the restraints need to be quickly removed for the client's safety.
The client with diabetes mellitus type 1 has a fruity breath odor. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Evaluate the client's intake and output
- B. Measure the client's capillary blood glucose
- C. Consult with the dietitian about the client's diet
- D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the client's finger
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fruity breath odor in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 can indicate ketoacidosis, a serious complication. Measuring the client's capillary blood glucose is the priority nursing action in this scenario as it helps diagnose and manage the condition effectively. Evaluating intake and output may be important for overall assessment but not the priority when dealing with a potential emergency like ketoacidosis. Consulting with a dietitian about the client's diet is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Applying a pulse oximeter is not relevant to addressing the fruity breath odor and suspected ketoacidosis.
A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
- B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
- C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
- D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.
The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
- B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
- C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
- D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.
The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?
- A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
- B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
- C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
- D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.