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The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Coughing or attempting to talk
- B. Disconnection from the ventilator
- C. Kinks in the ventilator tubing
- D. Need for suctioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.
C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm.
D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.
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What is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in pat ients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants?
- A. Administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours.
- B. Infusion of thrombolytics.
- C. Insertion of a vena cava filter.
- D. Subcutaneous heparin administration every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insertion of a vena cava filter. This is a strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants. The vena cava filter prevents blood clots from traveling to the lungs by trapping them in the inferior vena cava. It is a mechanical device that does not interfere with the body's clotting process.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours is not an effective strategy for preventing thromboembolism in high-risk patients. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and may not be sufficient for preventing blood clots in these patients.
B: Infusion of thrombolytics is used for breaking down blood clots that have already formed, not for prevention. It is not a suitable option for preventing thromboembolism in at-risk patients.
D: Subcutaneous heparin administration every 12
The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?
- A. Decreasing PaO levels despite increased FiO adminis tration
- B. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels
- C. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO administration 2
- D. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
- A. Apply forced air warming device to keep temperature > 96.8° F
- B. Obtain basic metabolic panel every 4 hours until surgery
- C. Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg
- D. Draw arterial blood gas every 4 hours until surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications.
Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient ass ignments on the critical care unit. She assigns the experienced, certified nurse to care for thea abicrbu.cteomly/t eisltl patient diagnosed with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. She assigns the nurse with less than 1 year of experience to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of what guiding framework?
- A. Crew resource management model
- B. National Patient Safety Goals
- C. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) mod el
- D. Synergy model of practice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Synergy model of practice. The Synergy model emphasizes matching nurse competencies with patient needs for optimal outcomes. In this scenario, the charge nurse assigned the experienced, certified nurse to a complex patient requiring specialized care (sepsis, renal replacement therapy, ventilation), aligning with the model's principle of matching nurse expertise to patient acuity. Assigning the less experienced nurse to stable patients aligns with the model's focus on optimizing patient outcomes by matching nurse competencies appropriately.
A: Crew resource management model focuses on teamwork and communication to enhance safety, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
B: National Patient Safety Goals are broad guidelines for improving patient safety, not specific to nurse-patient assignments.
C: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model focuses on integrating quality and safety competencies into nursing education, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increase functional residual capacity
- B. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli
- C. Improve arterial oxygenation
- D. Open collapsed alveoli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation.
B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones.
C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity.
D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.