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The nurse is caring for a patient who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 8000/mm³. What concern should the nurse have about this finding?
- A. The patient has an infection.
- B. The patient is at risk for infection.
- C. The patient has a hematological disorder.
- D. There is no concern; this is a normal finding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a WBC count of 8000/mm³ falls within the normal range of 4000-11000/mm³. The normal WBC count indicates the body's ability to fight infections and maintain immunity. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The patient does not necessarily have an infection based solely on the WBC count.
B: The patient is not necessarily at risk for infection with a normal WBC count.
C: There is no indication of a hematological disorder based on the WBC count within the normal range.
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The main vector transmitting malaria in Sabah is Anopheles balabacensis. This vector breeds in
- A. Artificial containers in urban centres
- B. Drains
- C. Temporary collecting of water in jungles
- D. Rock pools in control areas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Anopheles balabacensis, the main vector transmitting malaria in Sabah, breeds in temporary water collections in jungles. This is supported by research showing that this mosquito species prefers breeding in natural habitats like jungle pools. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Anopheles balabacensis is not typically found breeding in artificial containers in urban centers, drains, or rock pools in control areas. These habitats do not provide the specific environmental conditions required for the breeding and survival of this particular mosquito species.
An 8-year-old boy undergoes a resection of a tumor in the right cerebrum next to the lateral ventricle (supratentorial). The pathologist feels the histology is most consistent with an ependymoma. The tumor is sent for advanced molecular and genetic testing. Which of the following findings would further support a diagnosis of ependymoma?
- A. BRAFKIAA1549 fusion
- B. BRAFV600E mutation
- C. RELA fusion
- D. H3K27M mutation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: RELA fusion. Ependymomas are known to have specific genetic alterations, including RELA fusions. The fusion of RELA gene is a hallmark genetic abnormality observed in certain subtypes of ependymomas, aiding in the diagnosis. Conversely, choices A, B, and D are associated with other types of brain tumors such as pilocytic astrocytoma (A), melanoma (B), and diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (D), respectively. These genetic alterations are not characteristic of ependymomas, making them incorrect choices in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure and reports taking aspirin 81 mg daily, including this morning. The nurse should identify that this places the client at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Uncontrolled bleeding
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Decreased renal perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, increasing the risk of uncontrolled bleeding during surgical procedures. By taking aspirin, the client's blood clotting ability is impaired, leading to potential excessive bleeding during and after surgery. This can result in complications such as prolonged bleeding, hematoma formation, and delayed wound healing. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Uncontrolled bleeding.
Summary:
- B: Myocardial infarction is not directly related to taking aspirin; it is actually used to prevent heart attacks.
- C: Respiratory depression is not a common complication associated with aspirin use.
- D: Decreased renal perfusion is not a typical risk of taking aspirin; it primarily affects the cardiovascular system.
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure and reports taking aspirin 81 mg daily, including this morning. The nurse should identify that this places the client at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Uncontrolled bleeding
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Decreased renal perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, leading to decreased clotting ability. This places the client at risk for uncontrolled bleeding during and after surgery. Myocardial infarction (B) is not directly associated with aspirin use. Respiratory depression (C) is not a common complication of aspirin. Decreased renal perfusion (D) is not a typical complication of aspirin use.
When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemoglobin (Hgb) level. Pallor of the skin and nail beds indicates possible anemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of hemoglobin. Thus, checking the hemoglobin level is crucial to confirm the suspicion of anemia. Platelet count (choice A) assesses for clotting ability, neutrophil count (choice B) and white blood cell count (choice C) are indicators of infection or inflammation, which are not directly related to pallor. Hemoglobin level directly correlates with the observed symptom of pallor, making it the most appropriate laboratory test to order.