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The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
- A. creatinine levels in the urine are similar to blood levels of creatinine.
- B. sodium and chloride are found in the urine.
- C. urine uric acid levels have the same values as serum levels.
- D. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates possible kidney damage from the blunt trauma. This is concerning as it may suggest renal injury or dysfunction.
A: Creatinine levels in the urine being similar to blood levels is normal as creatinine is filtered by the kidneys.
B: Sodium and chloride being present in the urine is expected as they are components of urine.
C: Urine uric acid levels matching serum levels is common as uric acid is excreted by the kidneys.
In summary, the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine is abnormal and indicates potential kidney damage, making it the correct answer.
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The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a traumatic brain injury following a motor vehicle crash. The patient’s Glasgow Coma Score is 3 anda binirbte.cromm/ittetset ntly withdraws when painful stimuli are introduced. The patient is ventilator dependent and occasionally takes a spontaneous breath. The primary care provider explains to the family that the patient has severe neurological impairment and it is not expected that the patient will ever recover consciousness. What concept does this situation depict?
- A. An organ donor
- B. Brain death
- C. A persistent vegetative state
- D. Terminally ill
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A persistent vegetative state. This choice is correct because the patient exhibits minimal responsiveness, only withdrawing to painful stimuli, and lacks meaningful interaction or consciousness. A persistent vegetative state is characterized by preserved wakefulness without awareness, which aligns with the patient's condition.
Choice A: An organ donor is incorrect because the patient's neurological impairment does not necessarily indicate readiness for organ donation.
Choice B: Brain death is incorrect because the patient still exhibits some reflexive responses, indicating a level of brain function beyond brain death.
Choice D: Terminally ill is incorrect as it does not specifically address the patient's neurological status and prognosis, which is better described by a persistent vegetative state.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function.
Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.
An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?
- A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute.
- C. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min.
- D. Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion.
Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.
The nurse aware that a shortage of organs exists knows that which statement is true?
- A. Anyone who is comfortable approaching the family sh ould discuss the option of organ donation.
- B. Brain death determination is required before organs ca n be retrieved for transplant.
- C. Donation of selected organs after cardiac death is ethically acceptable.
- D. Family members should consider withdrawing life supapboirbrt.c osmo /ttehsat t the patient can become an organ donor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (B - Brain death determination is required before organs can be retrieved for transplant):
1. Brain death determination is a medical necessity to ensure the organs are viable for transplant.
2. Organs must be retrieved promptly after brain death to maintain their functionality.
3. Brain death criteria ensure that the donor is truly deceased before organ retrieval.
Summary of Why Other Choices are Incorrect:
A: While discussing organ donation is important, comfort level is not the main factor in organ shortage awareness.
C: Donation after cardiac death is ethically acceptable, but it is not directly related to the need for brain death determination.
D: Withdrawing life support solely to become an organ donor is ethically questionable and not a necessary step in organ donation.
Which statement made by a staff nurse identifying guidelianbeirsb .fcoomr /pteaslt liative care would need corrected?
- A. Basic nursing care is a critical element in palliative car e management.
- B. Common conditions that require palliative management are nausea, agitation, and sleep disturbance.
- C. Palliative care practices are reserved for the dying clie nt.
- D. Palliative care practices relieve symptoms that negativ ely affect the quality of life of a patient.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because palliative care is not just for the dying but also for those with serious illnesses. A: Correct - basic nursing care is essential in palliative care. B: Correct - common symptoms in palliative care include nausea, agitation, and sleep disturbance. D: Correct - palliative care aims to relieve symptoms and improve quality of life. Choice C is incorrect as it wrongly implies palliative care is only for the dying, which is a misconception.