Nursing Clinical Skills questions

Nursing Clinical Skills questions Related

Review Nursing Clinical Skills questions related questions and content

The nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a head trauma following a fall. The patient’s heart rate is 112 beats/min and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. The patient has poor skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. The patient is confused and restless. The following laboratory values are reported: serum sodium is 115 mEq/L; blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 50 mg/dL; and creatinine 8 mg/dL. The findings are consistent with which disorder?

  • A. Cerebral salt wasting
  • B. Diabetes insipidus
  • C. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone
  • D. Thyroid storm
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral salt wasting. This is indicated by the low serum sodium level (115 mEq/L), which can occur in patients with head trauma and lead to excessive sodium loss through the kidneys. This results in hypovolemia, leading to low blood pressure and tachycardia. The elevated BUN (50 mg/dL) and creatinine (8 mg/dL) levels suggest dehydration and renal impairment due to volume depletion. The patient's poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, confusion, and restlessness further support the diagnosis of cerebral salt wasting.

Summary:
B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This patient's symptoms are not consistent with diabetes insipidus.
C: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of ADH, leading to water retention and

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Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by

  • A. obstruction of the flow of urine.
  • B. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion.
  • C. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output.
  • D. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.

The patient’s potassium level is 0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?

  • A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
  • B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol
  • C. Regular insulin
  • D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.

The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should

  • A. draw blood from the left arm.
  • B. take blood pressures from the left arm.
  • C. start a new intravenous line in the left lower arm.
  • D. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.

Mechanisms for development of diabetes insipidus include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. ADH deficiency
  • B. ADH excess
  • C. ADH insensitivity
  • D. ADH replacement therapy
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urine production and thirst. ADH is responsible for regulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH levels are low or absent, the kidneys cannot concentrate urine effectively, resulting in excessive urine output.

Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
B: ADH excess would not lead to diabetes insipidus, as it would result in increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine.
C: ADH insensitivity refers to a condition where the body does not respond to ADH, but it does not cause diabetes insipidus.
D: ADH replacement therapy is actually a treatment for diabetes insipidus, not a mechanism for its development.

A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient?

  • A. He will go into adrenal crisis.
  • B. He will go into thyroid storm.
  • C. His autoimmune disease will go into remission.
  • D. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis.
Rationale:
1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol.
2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency.
3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences.
4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication.

Summary:
B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy.
C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication.
D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.

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