The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient’s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing
- A. diabetes insipidus.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
- D. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because:
B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output.
C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output.
D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.
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In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible.
A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible.
B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function.
C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability.
2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients.
3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy.
4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter.
5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal.
6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate.
Summary:
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Infection
- D. Volume overload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will (Select all that apply.)
- A. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results.
- B. administer the patient’s antihypertensive medications.
- C. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities.
- D. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By evaluating the morning laboratory results and reporting abnormal results, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety during dialysis by addressing any concerning findings promptly. This step is crucial in monitoring the patient's condition and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
Incorrect choices:
B: Administering antihypertensive medications is not directly related to the patient's dialysis procedure and does not address the immediate needs of the patient in the critical care unit.
C: While assessing the dialysis access site is important, reporting abnormalities alone may not be sufficient without a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's laboratory results.
D: Weighing the patient to monitor fluid status is important in the context of dialysis, but it is not as critical as evaluating laboratory results for immediate intervention.
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.