Nokea
The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who has diarrhea. Which of the following would be most therapeutic to teach the patient to avoid in the diet to reduce diarrhea?
- A. Potassium-rich food
- B. Liquid nutritional supplements
- C. Raw fruits and vegetables
- D. Frozen products
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raw fruits and vegetables. Patients with HIV and diarrhea should avoid raw fruits and vegetables due to their high fiber content, which can exacerbate diarrhea symptoms. Fiber can increase bowel movements and worsen diarrhea. Therefore, avoiding raw fruits and vegetables can help reduce diarrhea.
Choice A (Potassium-rich food) is not the best answer because potassium-rich foods are important for patients with HIV to maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B (Liquid nutritional supplements) can actually be beneficial in providing essential nutrients to patients with HIV. Choice D (Frozen products) is not directly related to diarrhea management in patients with HIV.
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Which of the following intravenous solutions is hypotonic?
- A. Normal saline
- B. Ringer’s lactate
- C. 0.45% saline
- D. 5% dextrose in normal saline A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET F
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.45% saline. This solution is hypotonic because it has a lower osmolarity compared to the intracellular fluid. It contains fewer solutes than the cells, causing water to move into the cells by osmosis, potentially causing them to swell.
Normal saline (A) and Ringer's lactate (B) are isotonic solutions, meaning they have a similar osmolarity to the intracellular fluid and do not cause significant water shifts.
5% dextrose in normal saline (D) is a hypertonic solution, containing more solutes than the cells, leading to water movement out of the cells.
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
- A. Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours
- B. Respiratory rate of 8breaths/min
- C. Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min
- D. Pupils constricted and equal A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET J
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest.
A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding.
C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically.
D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
- A. X-ray
- B. Both A and B
- C. Surgical
- D. Breast self examination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
A client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help.
- B. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container.
- C. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately.
- D. Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for help.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. First, the nurse should put the implant back in place using forceps and a shield for self-protection. This is important to limit the exposure to radiation for both the client and the nurse. Second, the nurse should call for help to ensure proper handling and further assistance. Standing away from the implant (choice A) does not address the immediate need to secure the implant. Picking up the implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead-lined container (choice B) should only be done by trained personnel to prevent further exposure. Leaving the room and notifying the radiation therapy department immediately (choice C) delays the immediate action needed to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure.
The lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of diabetes is:
- A. 90mg/dl
- B. 126mg/dl
- C. 115mg/dl
- D. 180mg/dl
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (126mg/dl) because a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl is diagnostic of diabetes. The diagnostic criteria for diabetes include a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl on two separate occasions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. A (90mg/dl) is within the normal range, C (115mg/dl) is elevated but not diagnostic, and D (180mg/dl) is too high but not necessary for diagnosis. It's crucial to understand the specific diagnostic criteria to accurately identify diabetes.