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The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient in the critica l care unit. The physician has ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for the patient. The nurse understands what facts about the PCA? (Select all that apply.)
- A. It is a safe and effective method for administering anal gesia.
- B. It has potentially fewer side effects than other routes of analgesic administration.
- C. It is an ideal method to provide critically ill patients so me control over their treatment.
- D. It does not work well without family assistance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A is correct:
1. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) allows patients to self-administer pain medication within preset limits, promoting pain management.
2. PCA is considered safe and effective as it provides better pain control, reduces the risk of overdose, and allows for individualized dosing.
3. Healthcare providers can monitor and adjust the PCA settings as needed to ensure optimal pain relief.
4. Studies have shown that PCA is a preferred method for postoperative pain management due to its efficacy and safety profile.
5. Overall, PCA is a reliable and beneficial approach to analgesia administration in postoperative patients.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: While PCA may have fewer side effects compared to some routes, this is not a defining characteristic of PCA.
C: While patients do have some control over their treatment with PCA, the primary focus is on pain management rather than giving control to critically ill patients.
D: PCA can be used effectively without family
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Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of aa bc iru bt .ce o mre /ts ep sti ratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient admitted with respiratory distress?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry
- B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
- C. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures
- D. PaO /FiO ratio > 300 2 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator would cue the nurse to the potential of ARDS in a patient with respiratory distress. ARDS is characterized by severe respiratory failure with bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. An increase in peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator indicates that the lungs are becoming stiffer, which is a common finding in ARDS due to increased inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli. This finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of ARDS and the need for further assessment and intervention.
Summary of other choices:
A: Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is a nonspecific finding and may not specifically indicate ARDS.
C: Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures is more indicative of heart failure rather than ARDS.
D: PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300 is a criterion used to diagnose ARDS, but a value higher than 300 actually indicates mild ARDS, so it would not necessarily cue the nurse
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?
- A. Case management.
- B. Team nursing.
- C. Primary nursing.
- D. Functional nursing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary nursing. Primary nursing is a care delivery model where one nurse is responsible for the total care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period. This promotes continuity of care, individualized attention, and better nurse-client relationships. In primary nursing, the nurse plans and directs care, coordinates with other healthcare team members, and serves as the main point of contact for the clients.
A: Case management involves coordinating care across different healthcare providers and services, not necessarily focusing on a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period.
B: Team nursing involves a team of healthcare providers working together to deliver care, rather than one nurse being responsible for a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period.
D: Functional nursing divides tasks among different healthcare team members based on their specific skills, which may not provide the same level of continuity and individualized care as primary nursing.
The patient is on intake and output (I&O), as well as daily weights. The nurse notes that output is considerably less than intake over the last shift, and daily weight is 1 kg more than yesterday. The nurse should
- A. draw a trough level after the next dose of antibiotic.
- B. obtain an order to place the patient on fluid restriction.
- C. assess the patient’s lungs.
- D. insert an indwelling catheter.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: First, the nurse should assess the patient's lungs to rule out any potential respiratory issues causing fluid retention. This is crucial as the patient has signs of fluid imbalance with decreased output and increased weight. Assessing the lungs can help identify conditions like heart failure or pneumonia that may contribute to these changes. Drawing a trough level (choice A) is not a priority as it doesn't address the immediate concern of fluid imbalance. Placing the patient on fluid restriction (choice B) should only be done after identifying the cause of the imbalance. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice D) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to fluid balance, not urinary elimination.
A patient receiving palliative care for advanced cancer reports fatigue and loss of appetite. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the patient to eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Administer prescribed appetite stimulants.
- C. Provide rest periods to reduce fatigue.
- D. Discuss the benefits of parenteral nutrition.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide rest periods to reduce fatigue. Prioritizing rest periods can help alleviate fatigue, a common symptom in patients with advanced cancer. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice A) may not be effective if the patient has no appetite. Administering appetite stimulants (choice B) may not address the root cause of fatigue. Discussing parenteral nutrition (choice D) is not the priority as it does not directly address the fatigue and loss of appetite reported by the patient. Rest is essential for symptom management and overall well-being in palliative care.
A patient declared brain dead is an organ donor. The following events occur: 1300 Diagnostic tests for brain death are completed. 1330 primary care provider reviews diagnostic test results and writes in the progress note that the patient is brain deaadb.i r1b.4co0m0/ tePsat tient is taken to the operating room for organ retrieval. 1800 All organs have b een retrieved for donation. The ventilator is discontinued. 1810 Cardiac monitor shows fla tline. What is the official time of death recorded in the medical record?
- A. 1300
- B. 1330
- C. 1400
- D. 1800
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death.
Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time.
Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either.
Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death.
Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.