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The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Suction the patient.
- B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- C. Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position.
- D. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.
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The nurse is assessing the exhaled tidal volume (EV ) in a mechanically ventilated patient. T What is the rationale for this assessment?
- A. Assess for tension pneumothorax.
- B. Assess the level of positive end-expiratory pressure.
- C. Compare the tidal volume delivered with the tidal volu me prescribed.
- D. Determine the patient’s work of breathing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine the patient’s work of breathing. Assessing the exhaled tidal volume (EV) in a mechanically ventilated patient helps determine how much effort the patient is exerting to breathe. By monitoring the EV, the nurse can evaluate the patient's respiratory status and adjust ventilator settings if needed. It is crucial to ensure that the patient is not working too hard to breathe, as this can lead to respiratory distress.
Incorrect answers:
A: Assess for tension pneumothorax - Tension pneumothorax is typically assessed through other means such as physical examination and chest X-ray.
B: Assess the level of positive end-expiratory pressure - The level of positive end-expiratory pressure is usually set based on the patient's condition and not solely based on the exhaled tidal volume.
C: Compare the tidal volume delivered with the tidal volume prescribed - This comparison is important but does not directly relate to assessing the patient's work of breathing.
Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis
- A. is more frequently used for acute kidney injury.
- B. uses the patient’s own semipermeable membrane (peritoneal membrane).
- C. is not useful in cases of drug overdose or electrolyte imbalance.
- D. is not indicated in cases of water intoxication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritoneal dialysis utilizes the patient's own semipermeable membrane, the peritoneal membrane, as the filtration surface. This allows for the exchange of waste products and excess fluids without the need for external dialysis equipment. Choice A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used for both acute and chronic kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can help manage drug overdose and electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used in cases of water intoxication to help remove excess fluids.
A 19-year-old is brought to the emergency department (ED) with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the left hand. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient denies having any previous vaccinations. The nurse will anticipate giving:
- A. Tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) only.
- B. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid (Td).
- C. Tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap) only.
- D. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient has a high-risk wound (tissue avulsion) and no documented prior tetanus vaccination. TIG provides immediate passive immunity to tetanus, while Tdap stimulates active immunity. TIG covers immediate needs, while Tdap ensures long-term immunity. Choice A (TIG only) does not provide long-term immunity. Choice B (TIG and Td) does not include pertussis coverage, which Tdap (Choice D) does. Choice C (Tdap only) does not cover immediate needs as TIG does.
What is the basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A decrease in the number of white blood cells availabl e.
- B. Damage to the right mainstem bronchus.
- C. Damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce suarbfiarbc.tcaomnt/t.e st
- D. Decreased capillary permeability.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by damage to the alveolar epithelium, including type II pneumocytes responsible for producing surfactant. Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing collapse. Damage to type II pneumocytes impairs surfactant production, leading to alveolar collapse and impaired gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ARDS is not primarily caused by a decrease in white blood cells, damage to the right mainstem bronchus, or decreased capillary permeability.
The patient’s serum creatinine level is 0.7 mg/dL. The expected BUN level should be
- A. 1 to 2 mg/dL.
- B. 7 to 14 mg/dL.
- C. 10 to 20 mg/dL.
- D. 20 to 30 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (10 to 20 mg/dL). The normal BUN-to-creatinine ratio is approximately 10:1. With a serum creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL, the expected BUN level should be around 7 to 14 mg/dL. Therefore, choice C (10 to 20 mg/dL) falls within this expected range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical BUN-to-creatinine ratio and would indicate abnormal kidney function.