Nokea
The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
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A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not recommended?
- A. A diet high in grains
- B. A diet with adequate caloric intake
- C. A high protein diet
- D. A restricted sodium diet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a patient with Addison's disease, a restricted sodium diet is not recommended. These patients require normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) should have ample access to salt because of the salt wasting that occurs if their condition is untreated. Therefore, a diet high in grains, a diet with adequate caloric intake, and a high protein diet are all recommended for patients with Addison's disease to support their nutritional needs and overall health. However, restricting sodium can be detrimental for these patients due to the nature of their condition.
A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
- A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
- B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
- C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
- D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.
A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
- A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
- B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
- C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
- D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history.
G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies.
T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term.
P0: She has not had any preterm births.
A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation.
L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.