Nokea
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
- A. an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
- B. a normal serum creatinine level.
- C. increased ability to excrete drugs.
- D. hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a normal serum creatinine level. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys are not able to filter waste products effectively, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels. This is a common indicator of renal dysfunction.
A: An increased GFR would not be expected in renal insufficiency, as it signifies improved kidney function.
C: Increased ability to excrete drugs is not a typical finding in renal insufficiency, as impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation.
D: Hypokalemia is not directly related to renal insufficiency. It is more commonly associated with factors like diuretic use or gastrointestinal losses.
You may also like to solve these questions
Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?
- A. Stimulate contraction of the uterus.
- B. Initiate the lactation process.
- C. Facilitate maternal-infant bonding.
- D. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because breastfeeding helps stimulate the uterus to contract, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother. When the baby suckles at the breast, it triggers the release of oxytocin, a hormone that causes the uterus to contract. This contraction helps the uterus to return to its pre-pregnancy size and shape, promoting faster healing and reducing bleeding.
Choice B is incorrect because lactation initiation is a separate process that involves hormonal changes and milk production, which may not occur immediately after delivery. Choice C is incorrect as bonding can occur through various interactions beyond breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as neonatal hypoglycemia is primarily prevented by ensuring the baby receives adequate nutrition, which can also be achieved through other feeding methods besides breastfeeding.
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
- A. the same as for men.
- B. greater than that for men.
- C. multiplied by 0.85
- D. multiplied by 1.15.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: multiplied by 0.85. This is because women typically have lower muscle mass compared to men, resulting in lower creatinine production. Therefore, to adjust for this difference, the creatinine clearance for women is multiplied by 0.85. This correction factor helps to more accurately estimate the GFR in women.
Choices A and B are incorrect because the creatinine clearance for women is not the same as or greater than that for men due to the physiological differences in muscle mass. Choice D is also incorrect as multiplying by 1.15 would overestimate the GFR in women.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
- A. assess peritoneal dialysate return.
- B. check the patient’s blood sugar.
- C. evaluate the patient’s neurological status.
- D. inform the provider of probable visceral perforation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature suggest a serious complication like visceral perforation.
Step 2: Peritoneal dialysate return assessment won't address the potential life-threatening issue.
Step 3: Checking blood sugar or evaluating neurological status is not relevant to the presenting symptoms.
Step 4: Informing the provider of probable visceral perforation is crucial for prompt intervention and further evaluation.
As part of nursing management of a critically ill patient, o rders are written to keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees, awaken the patient from se dation each morning to assess readiness to wean from mechanical ventilation, and implement oral care protocols every 4 hours. These interventions are done as a group to reduce thabei rrbi.csokm o/tef svt entilator-associated pneumonia. This group of evidence-based interventions is often referred to using what term?
- A. Bundle of care.
- B. Clinical practice guideline.
- C. Patient safety goal.
- D. Quality improvement initiative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bundle of care. A bundle of care refers to a set of evidence-based interventions that, when implemented together, have been shown to improve patient outcomes. In this scenario, keeping the head of the bed elevated, daily awakening from sedation, and oral care protocols are bundled together to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This approach is based on the idea that implementing multiple interventions simultaneously is more effective than individual interventions alone.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because:
B: Clinical practice guidelines provide recommendations for healthcare providers based on evidence but do not necessarily involve a group of interventions bundled together.
C: Patient safety goals are specific objectives aimed at improving patient safety outcomes, but they do not specifically refer to a group of interventions bundled together.
D: Quality improvement initiatives focus on improving processes and outcomes in healthcare settings but do not necessarily involve a group of interventions bundled together for a specific purpose like in this case.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the healthcare provider immediately if the patient develops:
- A. Oxygen saturation of 93%.
- B. Respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
- C. Green nasogastric tube drainage.
- D. Increased jugular venous distention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased jugular venous distention. In a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and on mechanical ventilation, increased jugular venous distention can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately as it may require urgent intervention to prevent further neurological deterioration.
A: Oxygen saturation of 93% is within the acceptable range for a patient on mechanical ventilation and may not require immediate notification.
B: Respirations of 20 breaths/minute are within normal limits for a ventilated patient and do not necessarily indicate a critical condition.
C: Green nasogastric tube drainage may indicate the presence of bile and could be related to gastrointestinal issues, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's neurological status.