Nokea
The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with cirrhosis. After completing discharge education, the nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the client makes which statement?
- A. “My cirrhosis was caused from too much alcohol; I plan to stop drinking.”
- B. “I need to rest more; I plan on only going to work on a part-time basis.”
- C. “Propranolol has been ordered to decrease my blood pressure.”
- D. “Furosemide will help to reduce the amount of abdominal fluid.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. Alcohol intake is a major cause of cirrhosis and must be eliminated from the client’s diet. B. Rest may enable the liver to restore itself and should be encouraged. C. Although propranolol (Inderal) does decrease BP, it is not ordered for this purpose in treating cirrhosis. Prophylactic treatment with a nonselective beta blocker like propranolol has been shown to reduce the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices and to reduce bleeding-related deaths. D. Furosemide (Lasix) is used in combination with potassium-sparing diuretics to decrease ascites.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is in the icteric phase of hepatitis C?
- A. Decrease alcohol intake.
- B. Encourage rest periods.
- C. Eat a large evening meal.
- D. Drink diet drinks and juices.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rest periods conserve energy and support recovery during the icteric phase of hepatitis C, when jaundice and fatigue are prominent. Alcohol avoidance is general advice, and diet changes are less specific.
The male client had abdominal surgery and the nurse suspects the client has peritonitis. Which assessment data support the diagnosis of peritonitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds and potassium level of 3.9 mEq/L.
- B. Abdominal cramping and hemoglobin of 14 g/dL.
- C. Profuse diarrhea and stool specimen shows Campylobacter.
- D. Hard, rigid abdomen and white blood cell count 22,000/mm3.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hard, rigid abdomen and elevated WBC count (22,000/mm3) indicate peritonitis due to peritoneal inflammation and infection. Absent bowel sounds are nonspecific, cramping with normal hemoglobin is less indicative, and diarrhea with Campylobacter suggests gastroenteritis.
The nurse is caring for clients on a medical unit. Which client information should be brought to the attention of the HCP immediately?
- A. A serum sodium of 128 mEq/L in a client diagnosed with obstipation.
- B. The client diagnosed with fecal impaction who had two (2) hard formed stools.
- C. A serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L in a client diagnosed with diarrhea.
- D. The client with diarrhea who had two (2) semiliquid stools totaling 300 mL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyponatremia (sodium 128 mEq/L) in obstipation risks neurological complications, requiring immediate HCP attention. Formed stools, normal potassium, and moderate diarrhea are less urgent.
The client is admitted to a medical unit. The client’s medication list includes rifaximin, lactulose, and propranolol. Which assessment should be the nurse’s priority based on the client’s medication list?
- A. Assess the client for a history of PUD.
- B. Assess the client for abdominal pain.
- C. Place the client on airborne precautions.
- D. Assess neurological status and abdominal girth.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A. Antibiotics and acid-reducing medications are expected with the treatment of PUD, but propranolol (Inderal) would not be expected. Although these medications may cue the nurse to further explore a history of PUD, this is not the most likely conclusion. B. There is no indication that the client has abdominal pain, and there isn’t an analgesic on the medication list. C. There is no indication that the client has an infectious condition necessitating airborne precautions. D. All medications listed are used to treat liver cirrhosis and its complications of portal hypertension and hepatic encephalopathy. The antibiotic rifaximin (Xifaxan) and the laxative lactulose (Cephulac) are used for treating hepatic encephalopathy. Thus, assessing the client’s neurological status and measuring abdominal girth are most important.
The nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of an aminoglycoside antibiotic to the client diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain a serum trough level.
- B. Ask about drug allergies.
- C. Monitor the peak level.
- D. Assess the vital signs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking for drug allergies before administering an aminoglycoside prevents allergic reactions, a critical safety step. Trough and peak levels are monitored later, and vital signs are routine but not specific to the initial dose.