Nokea
A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion.
- B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter.
- D. Assist the client into the knee-chest position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assist the client into the knee-chest position. This position helps relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and potential harm to the fetus. By positioning the client in knee-chest, gravity can aid in moving the fetus off the cord. Administering oxytocin (choice A) is not appropriate as the priority is to relieve pressure on the cord. Applying oxygen (choice B) does not address the immediate risk posed by the cord prolapse. Insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (choice C) is not indicated when the priority is to alleviate cord compression.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is monitoring a client during the first stage of labor. What finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Contractions every 3–5 minutes.
- B. Baseline fetal heart rate of 110 beats/minute.
- C. Variable decelerations on the fetal monitor.
- D. Client reports back pain during contractions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because variable decelerations on the fetal monitor indicate umbilical cord compression, which can lead to fetal distress and hypoxia. Immediate intervention is needed to relieve the compression and prevent potential harm to the baby. Contractions every 3-5 minutes (A) are normal in the first stage of labor. A baseline fetal heart rate of 110 beats/minute (B) is within the normal range for a fetus. Client reporting back pain (D) is a common symptom of labor and not necessarily indicative of a complication requiring immediate intervention.
Which is a disadvantage of the progesterone-only contraception pill?
- A. Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight.
- B. There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time.
- C. They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting.
- D. Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time. Progesterone-only pills have been associated with a potential decrease in bone density, especially with long-term use. This is because progesterone can have a negative impact on calcium absorption, leading to bone weakening.
A: Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight - This is not a specific disadvantage of progesterone-only pills and can apply to any contraceptive method.
C: They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting - This is a common side effect of progesterone-only pills but not a significant disadvantage compared to bone density issues.
D: Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months - This is a temporary effect and not a long-term disadvantage like decreased bone density.
A 28-year-old G1 P0 client tells the nurse that she medication cabergoline, which is effective in reducing has a craving for chalk. What is the nurse's best prolactin levels. What are possible side effects of this response to her?
- A. That is not normal for anyone. We need to refer
- B. Hypotension you to a therapist.
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Tell me more about why you have a craving for it.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should engage the client to gather more information about the craving for chalk. This helps in understanding the underlying cause.
Step 2: By asking the client to elaborate on the reason for the craving, the nurse can assess if it's related to a medical condition or nutritional deficiency.
Step 3: Understanding the client's perspective can guide the nurse in providing appropriate support and interventions.
Step 4: Referring the client to a therapist (option A) without first exploring the issue may not address the root cause effectively.
Step 5: Hypotension (option B) and nasal congestion (option C) are not directly related to the issue of chalk craving, making them incorrect choices.
In summary, option D is correct as it promotes client-centered care by exploring the client's concerns before considering further interventions.
The nurse is reviewing lab results for a pregnant client. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dL.
- B. WBC count of 14,000 mm3.
- C. Platelet count of 90,000 mm3.
- D. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count of 90,000 mm3. A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) in pregnancy can lead to serious complications like bleeding disorders or preeclampsia. Hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL is within normal range for pregnancy. WBC count of 14,000 mm3 may indicate infection but is not as concerning as thrombocytopenia. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is also normal in pregnancy.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse reports to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 148/94mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate 14mm
- C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
- D. 2+deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure 148/94mm Hg. High blood pressure in a client with preeclampsia indicates worsening condition and potential for eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures, so high blood pressure needs immediate provider attention.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Respiratory rate 14mm - This respiratory rate is within normal range.
C: Urinary output 20 mL/hr - Low urinary output should be monitored but is not the priority in this situation.
D: 2+deep tendon reflexes - Normal deep tendon reflexes are expected with magnesium sulfate therapy.