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The nurse is completing a home visit with the client who has an arterial ulcer secondary to PAD. Which statement by the client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. “I soak my feet daily to warm them and keep them soft.”
- B. “I cover the sore on my foot with sterile gauze to protect it.”
- C. “I use a pillow under my calves to keep my heels off the bed.”
- D. “I lubricate my feet daily to prevent them from cracking.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should immediately intervene when the client states soaking feet daily; foot soaks when the client has PAD can cause maceration (tissue breakdown). Covering with gauze, using a pillow, and lubricating are appropriate actions.
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The client returns to a hospital unit after undergoing placement of a vena cava filter. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Restart heparin therapy as soon as possible.
- B. Reinforce the abdominal incision dressing.
- C. Inspect the groin insertion site for bleeding.
- D. Increase fluids to promote excretion of the dye.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The procedure for placement of a vena cava filter is done percutaneously, usually through the subclavian or femoral vein approach. The nurse should check the groin insertion site for bleeding. Heparin is unnecessary, there’s no abdominal incision, and dye is not used.
The nurse who is beginning a shift on a cardiac step-down unit receives shift report for four clients. Prioritize the order, from most urgent to least urgent, that the nurse should assess the clients.
- A. The 56-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with chest pain receiving intravenous (IV) heparin and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due back in 30 minutes
- B. The 62-year-old client with end-stage cardiomyopathy, blood pressure (BP) of 78/50 mm Hg, 20 mL/hr urine output, and a “Do Not Resuscitate” order; whose family has just arrived
- C. The 72-year-old client who was transferred 2 hours ago from the intensive care unit (ICU) following a coronary artery bypass graft and has new-onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
- D. The 38-year-old postoperative client who had an aortic valve replacement 2 days ago, BP 114/72 mm Hg, heart rate (HR) 100 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) 28 breaths/min, and temperature 101.2°F (38.4°C)
Correct Answer: C;D;A;B
Rationale: The nurse should assess: C) Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response is life-threatening; D) Elevated temperature and vital signs suggest infection; A) Heparin adjustment is pending but less urgent; B) End-stage cardiomyopathy with DNR is stable and family support is secondary.
The nurse is caring for the client immediately following insertion of a permanent pacemaker via the right subclavian vein approach. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care to best prevent pacemaker lead dislodgement?
- A. Inspect the incision for approximation and bleeding
- B. Prevent the right arm from going above shoulder level
- C. Assist the client with using a walker when out of bed
- D. Request a STAT chest x-ray upon return from the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting arm and shoulder activity initially and up to 24 hours after the pacing leads are implanted helps prevent lead dislodgement. Often an arm sling is used as a reminder to the client to limit arm activity. Inspecting the incision, using a walker, and chest x-ray do not directly prevent lead dislodgement.
The client with class II HF according to the New York Heart Association Functional Classification has been taught about the initial treatment plan for this disease. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client states that the treatment plan includes which component?
- A. Diuretics
- B. A low-sodium diet
- C. Home oxygen therapy
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In class II HF, normal physical activity results in fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, or anginal pain, but symptoms are absent at rest. Home oxygen therapy is unnecessary unless there are other comorbid conditions. Diuretics, low-sodium diet, and ACE inhibitors are standard treatments.
The nurse is assessing the client who underwent repair of an aortic aneurysm with graft placement 30 minutes ago. The nurse is unable to palpate the posterior tibial pulse of one leg that was palpable 15 minutes earlier. What should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Recheck the pulse in 5 minutes.
- B. Reposition the affected leg.
- C. Notify the surgeon of the finding.
- D. Document that the pulse is absent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should notify the surgeon immediately to reassess the client. The loss of the pulse could signify graft occlusion or embolization. Rechecking, repositioning, or documenting delays critical intervention.