The nurse is counseling the client who has SLE. The client tells the nurse that she plans to become pregnant in the next year. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. “It is best to plan for your pregnancy when you have been in remission for 6 months.”
- B. “Having systemic lupus erythematosus will not impact your pregnancy in any way.”
- C. “Your chances of having an infant with congenital malformations are increased with SLE.”
- D. “You will need to be scheduled for a cesarean delivery to prevent disease transmission.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Planning for pregnancy with SLE when in remission for 6 months is correct. Pregnancy planned during periods of inactive or stable disease often results in giving birth to a healthy full-term baby without increased risks of pregnancy complications. Exacerbations of SLE can occur during pregnancy and impact pregnancy outcomes. There is no risk of congenital malformations associated with maternal SLE. However, the risk for spontaneous abortion, preterm labor and birth, and neonatal death is increased. SLE is not a transmissible disease, and there is no reason for a cesarean delivery.
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The nurse assesses the fundal height for multiple pregnant clients. For which client should the nurse conclude that a fundal height measurement is most accurate?
- A. The pregnant client with uterine fibroids
- B. The pregnant client who is obese
- C. The pregnant client with polyhydramnios
- D. The pregnant client experiencing fetal movement
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Excessive fetal movement may make it difficult to measure the client’s fundal height; however, it should not cause an inaccuracy in the measurement. Fibroids can increase fundal height and give a false measurement. Obesity can increase fundal height and give a false measurement. Polyhydramnios can increase fundal height and give a false measurement.
The client with mastitis asks the nurse if she should stop breastfeeding because she has developed a breast infection. Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. “Continuing to breastfeed will decrease the duration of your symptoms.”
- B. “Breastfeeding should only be continued if your symptoms decrease.”
- C. “Stop feeding for 24 hours until antibiotic therapy begins to take effect.”
- D. “It is best to stop breastfeeding because the infant may become infected.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Continuing to breastfeed is recommended when the client has mastitis. If the breasts continue to be emptied by either breastfeeding or pumping, the duration of symptoms and the incidence of a breast abscess are decreased. Continuing to breastfeed will decrease the symptoms of mastitis; there is no need to wait for symptoms to decrease. Usually an oral penicillinase-resistant penicillin or cephalosporin that is safe for the infant while breastfeeding is given to treat mastitis. There is no need for the client to stop breastfeeding for 24 hours. The infant’s nose and throat are the most common sources of the organism that causes mastitis. Infants of women with mastitis generally remain well; thus, concern that the mother will infect the infant if she continues breastfeeding is unwarranted.
The 38-year-old pregnant client at 22 weeks’ gestation has just been told she has hydramnios after undergoing a sonogram for size greater than dates. The nurse should further assess for which conditions associated with hydramnios? Select all that apply.
- A. A congenital anomaly
- B. Gestational diabetes
- C. Chronic hypertension
- D. TORCH infections
- E. Preeclampsia
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: In cases of anencephaly, the fetus is thought to urinate excessively because of overstimulation of the cerebrospinal centers, resulting in hydramnios. The nurse should further assess for gestational diabetes. Hydramnios is thought to occur from excessive fetal urination due to fetal hyperglycemia. Infants with mothers infected with toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, or herpes simplex virus infections (TORCH) are more likely to have hydramnios due to the inflammatory response and fluid accumulation. Chronic hypertension is not associated with excess amniotic fluid. Preeclampsia is not associated with excess amniotic fluid.
The nurse is caring for the client in labor. Which assessment finding would help the nurse determine whether the client is in the third stage of labor?
- A. Lengthening of fetal cord
- B. Increased bloody show
- C. A strong urge to push
- D. More frequent contractions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The third stage of labor lasts from the birth of the baby until the placenta is expelled. Lengthening of the fetal cord is one of several signs indicating placental separation. Bloody show is pink and mucoid in nature and occurs during the first and second stages of labor. During the third stage, there may be increased vaginal bleeding that is bright or dark red. A strong urge to push may occur during the first and second stages of labor. More frequent contractions occur during the first and second stages of labor.
The nurse assesses the 34-week pregnant client (G2P1). Place the assessment findings in the sequence that they should be addressed by the nurse from the most significant to the least significant.
- A. Pedal edema at +3
- B. BP 144/94 mm Hg
- C. Positive group beta streptococcus vaginal culture
- D. Fundal height increase of 4.5 cm in 1 week
Correct Answer: B,D,A,C
Rationale: BP 144/94 mm Hg warrants immediate evaluation. It could indicate preeclampsia, a condition that can progress to serious complications. Fundal height increase of 4.5 cm in 1 week is abnormal and requires further follow-up. Normal fundal height increase is 1 to 2 cm per week. An increase in fundal size can be related to gestational diabetes, large-for-gestational-age fetus, fetal anomalies, or polyhydramnios. Pedal edema at +3 may be a normal physiological process if it is an isolated finding. Pedal edema warrants further assessment because it can be a symptom of preeclampsia. Positive group beta streptococcus vaginal culture warrants antibiotic treatment in labor but does not warrant intervention during the pregnancy.
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