The nurse is counseling the client who is trying to become pregnant. To promote fetal health when the client is unaware of a pregnancy, the nurse should stress the inclusion of which nutrient in daily food intake?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Folic acid
- D. Sodium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the need for adequate folic acid intake. Folic acid is important in preventing neural tube defects, especially during the first four weeks of fetal development. Potassium is important in preventing leg cramps during pregnancy, but this is usually not an issue during the first four weeks of gestation. Calcium is important for fetal development of bones, teeth, heart, nerves, and muscles, but the fetus will take calcium from the mother. Calcium is more important to maternal health than fetal development. Sodium is important for maintaining optimal electrolyte balance but is typically ingested in more than adequate amounts in a typical diet.
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Which response by the nurse is most relevant when another participant talks about having recurrent mood swings?
- A. Try to avoid fatigue and decrease your stress.
- B. You need to be assessed for a possible mood disorder.
- C. Mood swings are caused by increased blood volume.
- D. Are you ambivalent about the pregnancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding fatigue and stress helps manage mood swings, which are common due to hormonal changes in pregnancy.
The client, who delivered a 4200-g baby 4 hours ago, continues to have bright red, heavy vaginal bleeding. The nurse assesses the client’s fundus and finds it to be firm and midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Continue to monitor the client’s bleeding and weigh the peripads.
- B. Call the client’s HCP and request an additional visual examination.
- C. Prepare to give oxytocin to stimulate uterine muscle contraction.
- D. Document the findings as normal with no interventions needed at that time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the nurse would definitely need to continue to monitor the amount and quality of bleeding, additional intervention is also needed. The nurse should consider the possibility of a vaginal wall or cervical laceration, which could produce heavy, bright red bleeding. The HCP should be notified and asked to perform a visual exam of the vagina to assess for possible lacerations in need of repair. Preparing to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) would be appropriate if the source of bleeding was suspected to be uterine atony, but the uterus is firm and in the expected location. Documenting the findings without further intervention would lead to a failure to identify the source of increased bleeding resulting in possible client injury. Further assessments and interventions are needed.
The nurse explains to the group that frequent urination during early pregnancy usually subsides at which time?
- A. When the placenta is fully developed
- B. When fetal kidneys begin to function
- C. When the uterus rises into the abdominal cavity
- D. When the hormonal balance is reestablished
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent urination subsides in the second trimester as the uterus rises into the abdominal cavity, reducing bladder pressure.
The client in labor received an epidural anesthesia 20 minutes ago. The nurse assesses that the client’s BP is 98/62 mm Hg and that the client is lying supine. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Increase the lactated Ringer’s infusion rate.
- B. Elevate the client’s legs for 2 to 3 minutes.
- C. Place the bed in 10- to 20-degree Trendelenburg.
- D. Position the client in a left side-lying position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first action is to place the client in a left side-lying position. This displaces the uterus and alleviates aortocaval compression. Increasing the infusion rate may be implemented if repositioning the client does not correct the hypotension. Elevating the client’s legs for 2 to 3 minutes is done with severe or prolonged hypertension to increase blood return from the extremities. It may be implemented after repositioning to left side, increasing the IV rate, and placing in Trendelenburg position. Placing in 10- to 20-degree Trendelenburg position is usually implemented if the BP does not increase within 1 to 2 minutes after repositioning to left side and increasing the IV flow rate.
The pregnant client has an abnormal 1-hour glucose screen and completes a 3-hour, 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which test results should the nurse interpret as being abnormal?
- A. Fasting blood glucose = 104 mg/dL
- B. 1-hour = 179 mg/dL
- C. 2-hour = 146 mg/dL
- D. 3-hour = 129 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fasting blood glucose of 104 mg/dL is abnormal for the OGTT; normal is 95 mg/dL or lower. A 1-hour OGTT value of 179 mg/dL is normal; normal is 180 mg/dL or lower. The 2-hour OGTT value of 146 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 155 mg/dL or higher. The 3-hour OGTT value of 129 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 140 mg/dL or higher.
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