The nurse is developing a care plan for a client diagnosed with allergic rhinitis. Which independent problem has priority?
- A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
- B. Knowledge deficit.
- C. Anaphylaxis.
- D. Ineffective coping.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is a priority in allergic rhinitis due to potential airway obstruction. Knowledge, anaphylaxis risk, and coping are secondary.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) following a major abdominal surgery. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse observe that indicate SIRS? Select all that apply.
- A. Bleeding times are increased and platelet counts decreased.
- B. Increased urine osmolality and decreased urine output.
- C. Four plus pitting edema of the lower extremities.
- D. Confusion, disorientation, delirium.
- E. Heart rate 78, blood pressure 124/84, and RR of 20.
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: SIRS presents with coagulopathy (bleeding/platelet issues), renal dysfunction (oliguria, high osmolality), and altered mental status. Pitting edema and normal vital signs are not diagnostic.
The nurse is describing the HIV virus infection to a client who has been told he is HIV positive. Which information regarding the virus is important to teach?
- A. The HIV virus is a retrovirus, which means it never dies as long as it has a host to live in.
- B. The HIV virus can be eradicated from the host body with the correct medical regimen.
- C. It is difficult for the HIV virus to replicate in humans because it is a monkey virus.
- D. The HIV virus uses the client's own red blood cells to reproduce the virus in the body.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV is a retrovirus that persists in the host, integrating into DNA. It cannot be eradicated, is not a monkey virus, and infects CD4 cells, not red blood cells.
The nurse is caring for a client with suspected fibromyalgia. Which diagnostic test confirms the diagnosis of fibromyalgia?
- A. There is no diagnostic test to confirm fibromyalgia.
- B. A positive antinuclear antibody test.
- C. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows fibrosis.
- D. A negative erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is diagnosed clinically, with no confirmatory test. ANA, MRI, and ESR are not diagnostic.
The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which clinical manifestation warrants immediate intervention?
- A. The client has scanning speech and diplopia.
- B. The client has dysarthria and scotomas.
- C. The client has muscle weakness and spasticity.
- D. The client has a congested cough and dysphagia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Congested cough and dysphagia indicate potential airway and swallowing issues, requiring immediate intervention to prevent aspiration or respiratory distress. Neurological symptoms like speech issues, diplopia, scotomas, weakness, and spasticity are expected in MS but less acute.
The client diagnosed with RA has developed swan-neck fingers. Which referral is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Physical therapy.
- B. Occupational therapy.
- C. Psychiatric counselor.
- D. Home health nurse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Occupational therapy addresses hand function and adaptive devices for swan-neck deformities. Physical therapy, counseling, and home health are less specific.
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