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The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury?
- A. Avoid watching television or using a computer for more than 1 hour at a time.
- B. Use OTC antibiotic eye drops for at least 14 days.
- C. Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face.
- D. Rinse the eye on the affected side with normal saline daily for 1 week.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Trigeminal neuralgia involves severe facial pain, often triggered by touch or movement.
Step 2: Rubbing the eye on the affected side can trigger pain due to the trigeminal nerve involvement.
Step 3: Therefore, advising the patient to avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side is crucial to prevent pain exacerbation and potential injury.
Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the risk of injury related to trigeminal neuralgia.
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The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. Try to induce a sneeze every 4 hours to equalize pressure.
- B. Be sure to exercise to reduce fatigue.
- C. Avoid sleeping in a side-lying position.
- D. Dont blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Don't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks." After mastoid surgery, blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and disrupt healing. Here's the rationale:
1. Blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and lead to complications.
2. Avoiding blowing the nose helps prevent infection and reduces the risk of damaging the surgical site.
3. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote proper healing and reduce the chances of postoperative complications.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because inducing a sneeze, exercising, and avoiding side-lying position do not directly relate to the specific care needs after mastoid surgery.
A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?
- A. Metastasis
- B. Risk for stroke
- C. Emotional and personality changes
- D. Pathologic bone fractures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Emotional and personality changes. In Huntington disease, neurodegeneration affects the brain, leading to changes in behavior, emotions, and personality. These changes are characteristic of the disease progression. Metastasis (A) refers to the spread of cancer, which is not associated with Huntington disease. Risk for stroke (B) is not a typical manifestation of Huntington disease. Pathologic bone fractures (D) are not directly related to the primary symptoms of Huntington disease. Thus, addressing emotional and personality changes is crucial in providing anticipatory guidance for individuals with Huntington disease.
An older-adult patient is wearing a hearing aid. Which technique should the nurse use to facilitate communication?
- A. The patient who is oriented, pain free, and blind
- B. The patient who is alert, hungry, and has strong self-esteem
- C. The patient who is cooperative, depressed, and hard of hearing
- D. The patient who is dyspneic, anxious, and has a tracheostomy Facial trauma, laryngeal cancer, or endotracheal intubation often prevents movement of air past vocal cords or mobility of the tongue, resulting in inability to articulate words. An extremely breathless person needs to use oxygen to breathe rather than speak. Persons with high anxiety are sometimes unable to perceive environmental stimuli or hear explanations. People who are alert, have strong self-esteem, and are cooperative and pain free do not cause communication concerns. Although hunger, blindness, and difficulty hearing can cause communication concerns, dyspnea, tracheostomy, and anxiety all contribute to communication concerns. appropriate to facilitate communication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a dyspneic patient with a tracheostomy may have difficulty speaking due to impaired airflow and mobility of the tongue. In this case, using alternative communication methods such as writing or using communication boards would be more effective.
Choice A is incorrect because being blind does not directly impact communication in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as hunger, alertness, and self-esteem do not relate to the communication challenges presented. Choice C is incorrect as depression, while important to consider, is not the primary factor impacting communication in this case.
A nurse is providing care to a culturally diversepopulation. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?
- A. Provides care that fits the patient’s valued life patterns and set of meanings
- B. Provides care that is based on meanings generated by predetermined criteria
- C. Provides care that makes the nurse the leader in determining what is needed
- D. Provides care that is the same as the values of the professional health care system
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing care that fits the patient's valued life patterns and set of meanings demonstrates cultural congruence. This approach acknowledges and respects the patient's cultural background, beliefs, and preferences. It promotes patient-centered care and enhances communication and trust between the nurse and the patient.
Choice B is incorrect because care based on predetermined criteria may not align with the patient's individual cultural needs. Choice C is incorrect as it does not prioritize the patient's values and preferences. Choice D is incorrect because providing care based solely on the values of the professional health care system may not consider the cultural diversity of the patient population.
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
- A. Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine
- B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
- C. Computed tomography with contrast solution
- D. Administration of nebulized bronchodilators
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans.
B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis.
D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil