Nokea
The nurse is evaluating the client in triage for possible labor. The client’s contractions are every 3 to 4 minutes, 60 to 70 seconds in duration, and moderate by palpation. Her cervical exam in the office was illustration 1. Her current exam is illustration 2. What conclusions should the nurse draw from illustration 2?
- A. The client is not dilated or effaced.
- B. The client is completely dilated but not effaced.
- C. The client has minimally dilated, but completely effaced.
- D. The client is not dilated, but completely effaced.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In illustration 2, the client is completely effaced and has some dilation. Illustration 1 (not illustration 2) shows that the client is neither effaced nor dilated. The cervical opening is minimally dilated, not completely dilated, and completely effaced. Illustration 2 shows some dilation.
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During the first postpartum checkup, the nurse is assessing whether the client’s chloasma has diminished. At which anatomical location is the nurse performing the assessment?
- A. Perineum
- B. Abdomen
- C. Breasts
- D. Face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma does not appear on the perineum. Chloasma does not appear on the abdomen. Chloasma does not appear on the breasts. The nurse should be assessing the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead for chloasma.
How early in a pregnancy can the nurse expect to hear the fetal heartbeat using a Doppler device?
- A. 4 to 6 weeks
- B. 8 to 10 weeks
- C. 12 to 14 weeks
- D. 16 to 18 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fetal heartbeat can typically be detected by Doppler around 12-14 weeks, when the fetus is sufficiently developed.
The nurse is providing nutrition counseling to the client during her first prenatal clinical visit. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that the client has an understanding of some of the nutritional requirements during pregnancy?
- A. “I can eat cheese as an alternative to milk, as I don’t care for milk.”
- B. “I should be eating more at each meal because I’m eating for two.”
- C. “I will need to limit my calories because I am already overweight.”
- D. “I should limit myself to eating only three healthy meals per day.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cheese is a milk product and is an alternative to milk. This statement indicates understanding of nutritional requirements regarding milk and milk products. Caloric intake needs to increase by 300 kcal per day during pregnancy to meet increased metabolic needs. However, “I’m eating for two” is a common misconception and leads to caloric intake greater than necessary. Caloric intake needs to increase by 300 kcal per day and should not be limited during pregnancy. Nutritional snacks throughout the day can provide for steady blood glucose levels and decrease the nausea associated with pregnancy. A limit of only three meals per day may not provide the client with enough calories to meet increased metabolic needs or may cause the client to eat more at each meal and increase nausea and bloating.
Two days after hospital discharge, the nurse is assessing the mother and her newborn twins in their home. Which statement or question made by the nurse best demonstrates empathy?
- A. “You may be feeling overwhelmed. This is normal.”
- B. “I can’t imagine how tired you must be with twins.”
- C. “How are you feeling about being the mother of twins?”
- D. “I saw that laundry is piling up. Do you want a home aide?”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Projecting feelings onto the client does not demonstrate empathy. This statement imposes a personal assumption and does not demonstrate empathy. This question demonstrates empathy. The nurse is asking a question to allow the client to explain her situation and feelings while the nurse listens. The nurse is attempting to understand the experience as lived by the client. Acknowledging that laundry is piling up and offering home aide services do not demonstrate empathy. Commenting on the laundry on the first visit may suggest to the client that she lacks support, and she may be defensive or hurt by the acknowledgement.
The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
- A. The fetus is approximately 2 cm below maternal ischial spines.
- B. The cervix is totally dilated and effaced, with fetal engagement.
- C. The fetus is breech and posterior to the client’s pelvis.
- D. The fetal lie is transverse, and the fetal attitude is flexion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated. Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.