Nokea
The nurse is evaluating the client in triage for possible labor. The client’s contractions are every 3 to 4 minutes, 60 to 70 seconds in duration, and moderate by palpation. Her cervical exam in the office was illustration 1. Her current exam is illustration 2. What conclusions should the nurse draw from illustration 2?
- A. The client is not dilated or effaced.
- B. The client is completely dilated but not effaced.
- C. The client has minimally dilated, but completely effaced.
- D. The client is not dilated, but completely effaced.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In illustration 2, the client is completely effaced and has some dilation. Illustration 1 (not illustration 2) shows that the client is neither effaced nor dilated. The cervical opening is minimally dilated, not completely dilated, and completely effaced. Illustration 2 shows some dilation.
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The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
- A. The fetus is approximately 2 cm below maternal ischial spines.
- B. The cervix is totally dilated and effaced, with fetal engagement.
- C. The fetus is breech and posterior to the client’s pelvis.
- D. The fetal lie is transverse, and the fetal attitude is flexion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated. Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
The nurse is caring for the client in preterm labor who has gestational diabetes. The nurse determines that the client has a reactive NST when which findings are noted?
- A. Two fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats per minute (bpm) above baseline for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period
- B. An FHR acceleration of 15 bpm above baseline for at least 10 seconds in the 40-minute time period for the NST
- C. Two FHR accelerations of 20 bpm above baseline when the mother changes position during the 20-minute NST
- D. The occurrence of at least three mild repetitive variable decelerations in the 20-minute time period for the NST
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The FHR is monitored by the placement of an electronic fetal monitor that has an ultrasound transducer to record the FHR and a tocodynamometer to detect uterine or fetal movement. The client is given a handheld marker to indicate when she feels fetal movement. Fetal movement is accompanied by an increase in the FHR in the healthy fetus. The criterion for a reactive (normal) NST is the presence of two FHR accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline lasting 15 seconds or longer in a 20-minute period. One FHR acceleration during a 40-minute period is insufficient and indicates a nonreactive (abnormal) NST. Maternal movement can cause an inconsistency in the FHR on the monitor strip and should be avoided during an NST. The occurrence of at least three mild repetitive variable decelerations in a 20-minute period describes a nonreactive (abnormal) NST and fetal intolerance.
During the first postpartum checkup, the nurse is assessing whether the client’s chloasma has diminished. At which anatomical location is the nurse performing the assessment?
- A. Perineum
- B. Abdomen
- C. Breasts
- D. Face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma does not appear on the perineum. Chloasma does not appear on the abdomen. Chloasma does not appear on the breasts. The nurse should be assessing the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead for chloasma.
The nurse explains that, in addition to increased blood volume, which other condition causes varicose veins during pregnancy?
- A. Impaired venous return
- B. Decreased cardiac output
- C. Altered center of gravity
- D. Impaired kidney function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Impaired venous return, due to the uterus compressing veins, causes varicose veins, compounded by increased blood volume.
The postpartum client, who is 24 hours post—cesarean section, tells the nurse that she has much less lochial discharge after this birth than with her vaginal birth 2 years ago. The client asks if this is normal after a cesarean birth. Which statement should be the basis for the nurse’s response?
- A. A decrease in her lochia is not expected; further assessment is needed.
- B. Women usually have increased lochial discharge after cesarean births.
- C. Women normally have less lochial discharge after a cesarean birth.
- D. The lochia amount depends on whether surgery was emergent or planned.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in lochia is expected after a cesarean birth; no further assessment is needed regarding the lochial amount unless it is totally absent. A decrease in lochia is expected after a cesarean birth, not an increase. The client’s lochial discharge is usually decreased after cesarean birth because the uterus is cleaned during surgery. The amount of lochia is not dependent on whether the surgery was emergent or planned because the uterus is cleaned during surgery in both situations.