Nokea
The nurse is explaining the role of red blood cells with oxygen transport in the body with a nursing student. Which term should the nurse use to describe hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the body's cells?
- A. Reduced
- B. Detached
- C. Oxyhemoglobin
- D. Hypoxyhemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct term to describe hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the body's cells is "Reduced" (Choice A). This term refers to hemoglobin that has released its oxygen molecules and is now in a deoxygenated state.
Rationale:
1. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs (forming oxyhemoglobin).
2. When hemoglobin reaches the body's cells, it releases oxygen for cellular use.
3. Once hemoglobin releases oxygen, it becomes deoxygenated or "Reduced".
Summary:
- Choice B (Detached) does not accurately describe the process of oxygen release by hemoglobin.
- Choice C (Oxyhemoglobin) refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, not hemoglobin that has released oxygen.
- Choice D (Hypoxyhemoglobin) would refer to hemoglobin that has a reduced oxygen level, not hemoglobin that has given up its oxygen to the cells.
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A 3-month-old female presents to the emergency room with vomiting and abdominal distension. She has a left-side abdominal mass, and an abdominal ultrasound confirms an 8-cm mass arising from the left kidney. Liver lesions are also noted. Nephrectomy is performed and reveals a histologic diagnosis of malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK). Which of the following is not a true statement about the management of this patient?
- A. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present in infancy.
- B. Most patients with rhabdoid tumor of the kidney present with metastatic (stage III or IV) disease.
- C. She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
- D. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation on chromosome 22 is recommended, with brain MRI every 3 months until she is 5 years old, if testing is germline positive for SMARCB1/INI1.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: She has an excellent prognosis with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. This statement is not true because malignant rhabdoid tumor of the kidney (MRTK) has a poor prognosis, even with aggressive treatment. Here's a breakdown:
1. MRTK is an aggressive and rare tumor that often presents in infancy, supporting statement A.
2. Most patients with MRTK present with metastatic disease, indicating poor prognosis, aligning with statement B.
3. Germline testing for SMARCB1/INI1 mutation is essential due to the genetic predisposition associated with MRTK, supporting statement D.
In summary, statement C is incorrect as MRTK typically has a challenging clinical course despite comprehensive treatment approaches.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking folic acid to treat megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine therapeutic effectiveness?
- A. Amylase level
- B. Reticulocyte count
- C. C-reactive protein
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells. In megaloblastic anemia, there is a decrease in red blood cell production due to a deficiency in folic acid. Monitoring reticulocyte count helps determine if the folic acid treatment is increasing red blood cell production.
A: Amylase level is not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia.
C: C-reactive protein is a marker for inflammation and not specific to monitoring anemia treatment.
D: Creatinine clearance is used to assess kidney function, not the effectiveness of folic acid in treating anemia.
An older adult patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). What assessment finding is certain to be present if the patient has CLL?
- A. Increased numbers of blast cells
- B. Increased lymphocyte levels
- C. Intractable bone pain
- D. Thrombocytopenia with no evidence of bleeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. CLL is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal lymphocytes.
2. Increased lymphocyte levels are a hallmark of CLL due to the accumulation of these abnormal cells.
3. Lymphocytosis is a key diagnostic feature in CLL.
4. Other choices are incorrect because blast cells are characteristic of acute leukemia, bone pain is more common in multiple myeloma, and thrombocytopenia with no bleeding is not a specific finding in CLL.
Summary: Increased lymphocyte levels are certain to be present in a patient with CLL due to the abnormal proliferation of lymphocytes. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristic features of CLL.
A 14-year-old Syrian male with beta thalassemia major has relocated to your community as a refugee. He has been receiving chronic transfusion therapy in Turkey for the past 3 years. On his first visit, you notice that his height is below the fifth percentile. He has skin discoloration and hepatosplenomegaly. His mother reports they have not had regular access to chelation therapy. Laboratory testing shows a serum ferritin of 6,200 ng/mL. A cardiac MRI shows grossly normal cardiac function but a T2* value of 9 ms. What is the most likely cause of his short stature?
- A. Lack of regular blood transfusion causing growth failure
- B. Cirrhosis and liver failure
- C. Ineffective erythropoiesis and chronic anemia
- D. Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary. Iron deposition in the pituitary gland can lead to impaired production and secretion of growth hormone, resulting in short stature. This is a known complication of beta thalassemia major. The patient's elevated serum ferritin levels and T2* value of 9 ms indicate iron overload, which can cause damage to organs including the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the patient's growth failure is primarily due to the impact of iron deposition on the pituitary gland rather than lack of transfusion, cirrhosis, or ineffective erythropoiesis. Regular chelation therapy is essential to prevent iron overload and its complications in patients with beta thalassemia major.
A newborn infant develops jaundice on day of life 2. Labs are drawn, and she has a hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL with a reticulocyte count of 8%. Upon peripheral blood smear review, she is found to have bizarre red cell forms with significant polkilocytosis. Although her parents have normal blood counts, on review of their peripheral blood smears, they both have a moderate number of ovalocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infant's red cell findings?
- A. She has an autosomal dominant ankyrin mutation from one of her parents causing hereditary spherocytosis.
- B. She has inherited band 3 variants from each parent and will likely need a splenectomy after she turns 5 years old.
- C. She has inherited an alpha-spectrin mutation from both of her parents and may experience an improvement in her anemia over time.
- D. She has inherited a PKLR variant from each parent, and enzyme testing will be consistent with her diagnosis of pyruvate kinase deficiency.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the infant likely has hereditary elliptocytosis, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the alpha-spectrin gene. Ovalocytes and polkilocytosis are characteristic of this condition. Since both parents have ovalocytes, it is likely that the infant inherited mutations from each parent, resulting in a more severe presentation. Anemia in hereditary elliptocytosis can improve over time due to compensatory mechanisms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe different genetic disorders (hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and pyruvate kinase deficiency, respectively) and do not match the clinical and family history provided.