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The nurse is explaining to a primagravida in labor that her baby is in a breech presentation, with the baby’s presenting part in a left, sacrum, posterior (LSP) position. Which illustration should the nurse use to help the client understand how her baby is positioned?
- A. primagravida-1.png
- B. primagravida-2.png
- C. primagravida-3.png
- D. primagravida-4.png
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This figure shows the client’s baby in a breech presentation with the baby facing the pelvis on the left, the sacrum as the presenting part, and the presenting part (sacrum) is posterior in the pelvis. Figure 2 shows a vertex presentation with the baby in a left, occiput, anterior position (LOA). Figure 3 shows a vertex presentation, left, occipit, posterior (LOP). Figure 4 shows a face position with the babyin a left, mentum, transverse position (LMT).
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A client at 4 weeks postpartum tells the nurse that she can't cope any longer and is overwhelmed by her newborn. The baby has old formula on her clothes and under her neck. The mother does not remember when she last bathed the baby and states she does not want to care for the infant. The nurse should encourage the client and her husband to call their health care provider because the mother should be evaluated further for?
- A. Postpartum blues.
- B. Postpartum depression.
- C. Poor bonding.
- D. Infant abuse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum depression involves feelings of being overwhelmed and unable to care for the infant.
A multigravid client is admitted at 4-cm dilation and requesting pain medication. The nurse gives the client Nubain 15 mg and Phenergan 25 mg slow I.V. push. Within 5 minutes, the client tells the nurse she feels like she needs to have a bowel movement. The nurse should first:
- A. Have naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) available in the delivery room.
- B. Perform a vaginal examination to determine dilation, effacement, and station.
- C. Prepare for delivery.
- D. Document the client's relief due to pain medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden urge to have a bowel movement in labor often indicates rapid progression to full dilation or fetal descent. A vaginal examination confirms dilation and station to guide next steps (e.g., preparing for delivery). Naloxone, preparation, or documentation are premature without assessment.
Assessment of a 16-year-old nulligravid client who visits the clinic and asks for information on contraceptives reveals a menstrual cycle of 28 days. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Deficient knowledge related to ovulation and fertility management. Which of the following would be important to include in the teaching plan for the client?
- A. The ovum survives for 96 hours after ovulation, making conception possible during this time.
- B. The basal body temperature falls at least 0.2°F after ovulation has occurred.
- C. Ovulation usually occurs on day 14, plus or minus 2 days, before the onset of the next menstrual cycle.
- D. Most women can tell they have ovulated because of severe pain and thick, scant cervical mucus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs around day 14 (plus or minus 2 days) before the next menstrual cycle in a 28-day cycle, which is critical for understanding fertility windows. The ovum survives for about 12-24 hours, not 96 hours, and basal body temperature rises after ovulation.
A nurse is discussing the copper IUD with a client. Which of the following side effects should the nurse mention?
- A. Decreased menstrual bleeding.
- B. Increased menstrual bleeding and cramping.
- C. Permanent infertility.
- D. Guaranteed regular periods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The copper IUD may increase menstrual bleeding and cramping, especially initially. It does not decrease bleeding, cause permanent infertility, or guarantee regular periods.
A multigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation, G4 P3, is 6 cm dilated with contractions every 3 minutes. The nurse observes meconium-stained amniotic fluid after spontaneous rupture of membranes. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean delivery.
- B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern.
- C. Suction the client's oropharynx.
- D. Document the fluid characteristics.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meconium-stained fluid raises the risk of fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate pattern immediately ensures the fetus is tolerating labor. Cesarean delivery is not automatic, suctioning is irrelevant, and documentation follows assessment.