Nokea
Abdominal pain caused by uterine cramps during a menstrual period is known as _________.
- A. dysmenorrhoea
- B. hypermenorrhoea
- C. menometrorrhagia
- D. polymenorrhoea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: dysmenorrhoea. Dysmenorrhoea specifically refers to abdominal pain caused by uterine cramps during menstruation. "Dys-" means difficult or painful, and "menorrhoea" refers to menstruation.
Choice B, hypermenorrhoea, refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding, not abdominal pain. Choice C, menometrorrhagia, refers to irregular and excessive uterine bleeding, not specifically related to abdominal pain. Choice D, polymenorrhoea, refers to frequent menstrual cycles, not abdominal pain.
In summary, dysmenorrhoea is the correct answer because it accurately describes the abdominal pain associated with uterine cramps during menstruation, while the other choices pertain to different menstrual abnormalities.
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Primary spermatogonium undergo:
- A. two mitotic divisions to become a secondary spermatocyte
- B. mitosis and then meiosis to become a secondary spermatocyte
- C. two meiotic divisions to become a secondary spermatocyte
- D. meiosis and differentiation to become a secondary spermatocyte
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Primary spermatogonium undergo mitosis to replicate and maintain the diploid chromosome number, then meiosis to reduce the chromosome number, resulting in secondary spermatocytes. Choice A is incorrect as it skips meiosis. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests two meiotic divisions from primary spermatogonium, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to mention the initial step of mitosis before meiosis in the process.
During a physical examination of the male reproductive system, how does the nurse assist the examiner to gather clues about the density of scrotal tissue?
- A. Through a digital rectal examination
- B. By externally inspecting the size of the scrotum
- C. Through transillumination
- D. Through a scrotal radiography
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Transillumination helps assess the density and presence of fluid in the scrotum.
The end of the vas deferens is a dilated sac called the _____.
- A. ductus deferens
- B. seminal vesicle
- C. ampulla
- D. ejaculatory duct
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ampulla. The ampulla is a dilated portion at the end of the vas deferens where it joins with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct. This structure serves as a storage and mixing area for sperm and seminal fluid before ejaculation. The other choices, A: ductus deferens, is another name for the vas deferens itself; B: seminal vesicle is a gland that produces seminal fluid but is not the dilated sac at the end of the vas deferens; D: ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle, it is not the dilated sac itself.
About the vascularization of the uterus we can state the following:
- A. the arteries branch off the common iliac artery;
- B. the arteries are branches off the abdominal aorta;
- C. the veins open in the inferior vena cava;
- D. the arteries are branches off the internal iliac artery;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the arteries supplying the uterus arise from the abdominal aorta. The uterine arteries branch off the anterior division of the internal iliac artery, which itself arises from the posterior division of the internal iliac artery. This vascular supply ensures that the uterus receives oxygenated blood rich in nutrients necessary for its proper function.
Choice A is incorrect because the common iliac artery does not directly supply blood to the uterus. Choice C is incorrect because the veins draining the uterus ultimately empty into the internal iliac veins, which then drain into the common iliac veins and not directly into the inferior vena cava. Choice D is incorrect because while the uterine arteries are indeed branches off the internal iliac artery, the internal iliac artery itself arises from the common iliac artery and not directly from the abdominal aorta.
A 49-yr-old man who has type 2 diabetes, high blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and gastroesophageal reflux tells the nurse that he has had recent difficulty in achieving an erection. Which of the following drugs from his current medications list may cause erectile dysfunction (ED)?
- A. Ranitidine (Zantac)
- B. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
- C. Propranolol (Inderal)
- D. Metformin (Glucophage)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Propranolol (Inderal). Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat high blood pressure, which can lead to erectile dysfunction (ED) as a side effect by affecting blood flow. The other choices, A: Ranitidine (Zantac) is an H2 blocker used for GERD; B: Atorvastatin (Lipitor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol; and D: Metformin (Glucophage) is an oral antidiabetic agent. These medications are not typically associated with causing ED.