The distal portion of the male urethra ________. that runs the length of the penis is the epididymis, ductus (vas) ________.
- A. prostatic,Membranous
- B. prostatic urethra
- C. membranous urethra
- D. epididymis, ductus (vas)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the question is referring to the male urethra, not the epididymis or vas deferens. The distal portion of the male urethra that runs the length of the penis is the membranous urethra and the spongy (penile) urethra. A and B are incorrect as they mention the prostatic urethra, which is not the distal portion that runs the length of the penis. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions the membranous urethra and does not address the full distal portion.
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A client with phimosis is not a candidate for surgery. Which of the following suggestions should a nurse give the client?
- A. Apply a skin cream and try retracting the tissue.
- B. Wash under the foreskin daily and seek care if he cannot retract the tissue.
- C. Apply warm soaks to the foreskin.
- D. Take sitz baths regularly until the tissue retracts.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proper hygiene and seeking care if issues persist are important for managing phimosis non-surgically.
In order for male differentiation to occur during embryonic development, testosterone must be secreted from the testes. What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development?
- A. Luteinizing hormone from the maternal pituitary gland
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- C. Inhibin from the corpus luteum
- D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the embryo’s hypothalamus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development. hCG is produced by the developing embryo and acts on the Leydig cells in the testes to trigger the production of testosterone. This hormone plays a crucial role in male differentiation by promoting the development of male reproductive organs.
A: Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the maternal pituitary gland is not involved in the early stages of male differentiation in the embryo. LH is typically involved in the regulation of testosterone production postnatally.
C: Inhibin from the corpus luteum is not involved in the stimulation of testosterone secretion during embryonic development. Inhibin is mainly involved in the negative feedback regulation of FSH secretion.
D: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the embryo's hypothalamus is not responsible for directly stimulating testosterone secretion during embryonic development. GnRH regulates the secretion
The gonads produce sex cells, also spermatids into sperm is known as known as ________, ________.
- A. zygotes
- B. mitosis
- C. interstitial cells
- D. spermiogenesis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: spermiogenesis. Spermiogenesis is the process where spermatids mature into sperm cells in the testes. The gonads (testes in males) produce sex cells, but zygotes are formed through fertilization, not spermiogenesis. Mitosis is a type of cell division for growth and repair, not sperm production. Interstitial cells are found in the testes but are responsible for producing testosterone, not the maturation of spermatids into sperm cells. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it specifically relates to the transformation of spermatids into sperm cells in the testes.
How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?
- A. 34
- B. 44
- C. 54
- D. 33
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (44 autosomes) because a human primary spermatocyte is a diploid cell containing a total of 44 autosomes. This is because humans have 22 pairs of autosomes in their somatic cells. During meiosis I, the primary spermatocyte undergoes replication and recombination, resulting in 22 pairs of autosomes (44 autosomes) that will be divided into two haploid secondary spermatocytes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct number of autosomes present in a human primary spermatocyte.
Infertility could develop when the sperm cells display _____.
- A. a count of 120 million per ml semen
- B. increased acrosomal activity
- C. normal morphology
- D. a count of less than 20 million per ml semen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a low sperm count (less than 20 million per ml semen) can lead to infertility as it decreases the chances of successful fertilization. A high sperm count (choice A) is actually beneficial for fertility. Increased acrosomal activity (choice B) can enhance fertilization potential. Normal morphology (choice C) refers to the shape and size of sperm, which is important for fertility but not the primary factor in infertility due to low sperm count. Overall, a low sperm count is the most significant factor in infertility.