Nokea
The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?
- A. Cardiac function
- B. Renal function
- C. Liver function
- D. Pulmonary function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.
An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.
While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action?
- A. Stopping the administration of the drug immediately
- B. Notifying the patient's physician
- C. Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate
- D. Applying a warm compress to the infusion site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing swelling and pain at the IV site during the administration of doxorubicin hydrochloride is to stop the administration of the drug immediately. Doxorubicin hydrochloride can cause severe tissue damage, so discontinuing the infusion is crucial to prevent further harm to the patient. Notifying the physician is important, but it should not take precedence over stopping the drug. Continuing the infusion, even at a decreased rate, can exacerbate tissue damage. Applying a warm compress is not appropriate in this situation and may worsen the tissue injury caused by the drug.
An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?
- A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
- B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
- C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
- D. Invading healthy host tissues
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.
What is a characteristic of normal cells?
- A. They have no functions
- B. They have a larger nucleus
- C. They undergo apoptosis
- D. They have a dark-colored nucleus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that normal cells undergo apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis. Choice A is incorrect as normal cells do have specific functions. Choice B is incorrect as the size of the nucleus may vary but is not a defining characteristic of normal cells. Choice D is incorrect as the color of the nucleus is not a standard characteristic of normal cells.