The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant's record?
- A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
- B. Compare the difference between the infant's current weight and admission weight.
- C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
- D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.
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During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?
- A. A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
- B. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields
- C. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration
- D. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.
The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which finding?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Clenched Fist
- C. Increased pulse rate
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In infants, restlessness can be a significant indicator of discomfort or pain, necessitating appropriate pain management. While choices B, C, and D can also be associated with pain, restlessness is a more general and reliable indicator in this scenario. A clenched fist might indicate pain or distress, but it is not as specific as restlessness in assessing pain in infants. Increased pulse rate and respiratory rate can be influenced by various factors other than pain, making them less reliable indicators of pain in this context.
When attempting to establish risk reduction strategies in a community, the nurse notes that regional studies indicate a high number of persons with growth stunting and irreversible mental deficiencies caused by hypothyroidism (cretinism). The nurse should seek funding to implement which screening measure?
- A. T3 levels in school-aged children
- B. T4 levels in newborns
- C. TSH levels in women over 45
- D. Iodine levels in all persons over 60
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Screening T4 levels in newborns is crucial as it helps in the early detection of hypothyroidism, which can prevent conditions like cretinism. Checking T3 levels in school-aged children (Choice A) is not the most appropriate measure for early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns. Monitoring TSH levels in women over 45 (Choice C) is not directly related to detecting hypothyroidism in newborns. Additionally, monitoring iodine levels in all persons over 60 (Choice D) is not specifically aimed at early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns, which is crucial to prevent cretinism.
A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
- B. Gather additional information about the client's family history for all types of cancer.
- C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
- D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.
A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.