Nokea
The nurse is monitoring a client who received ketamine for anesthesia induction. Which side effect should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Respiratory depression.
- C. Vivid dreams or hallucinations.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ketamine can cause vivid dreams or hallucinations, which may distress the client during recovery. Monitoring and reassuring the client are critical to manage this psychological side effect.
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The client asks the nurse to explain what it means that his Hodgkin's disease is diagnosed at stage 1A. Which of the following describes the involvement of the disease?
- A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
- B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
- C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
- D. Diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stage 1A Hodgkin's disease indicates involvement of a single lymph node region without B symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss). Higher stages involve multiple nodes or extralymphatic sites.
The nurse is reviewing the postoperative orders (see chart) just written by a physician for a client with insulin-dependent diabetes who has returned to the surgery floor from the recovery. The client has pain of 5 on a scale of 1 to 10. The hand-off report from the nurse in the recovery room indicated that the vital signs have been stable for the last 30 minutes. After obtaining the client's glucose level, the nurse should do which of the following first?
- A. Administer the morphine.
- B. Contact the physician to report the glucose level and rewrite the insulin order.
- C. Administer oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/minute.
- D. Take the vital signs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The glucose level must be assessed to determine if insulin is safe to administer, as hypoglycemia could worsen with insulin. Contacting the physician ensures appropriate insulin dosing.
A client receives fibrinolytic therapy upon admission following a myocardial infarction. He is now receiving an I.V. infusion of heparin sodium at 1,200 units/hour. The dilution is 25,000 units/500 mL. How many milliliters per hour will this client receive?
Correct Answer: 24 mL/hour
Rationale: To calculate: (1,200 units/hour ÷ 25,000 units) × 500 mL = 24 mL/hour. This is a calculation question, not multiple-choice, so no choices or correct answer letter is provided.
A client with toxic shock has been receiving ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin), 1 g every 12 hours. In addition to culture and sensitivity studies, which other laboratory findings does the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Spinal fluid analysis.
- C. Arterial blood gases.
- D. Serum osmolality.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ceftriaxone can cause nephrotoxicity, so the nurse should monitor serum creatinine to assess kidney function. Spinal fluid analysis, arterial blood gases, and serum osmolality are not routinely monitored for ceftriaxone therapy.
A client treated for hypertension with furosemide (Lasix), atenolol (Tenormin), and ramipril (Altace) develops a second degree heart block Mobitz type 1. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer a 250 mL fluid bolus.
- B. Withhold the atenolol.
- C. Prepare for cardioversion.
- D. Set up for an arterial line.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can exacerbate heart block by slowing conduction. Withholding it and consulting the physician is the priority.