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The nurse is monitoring a client with premature rupture of membranes at 37 weeks. Which prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
- B. Monitor maternal vital signs frequently.
- C. Perform a vaginal examination every shift.
- D. Administer an antibiotic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal exams are minimized to reduce the risk of infection in clients with premature rupture of membranes.
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The nurse assess that a newborn is in respiratory distress when the infant exhibits:
- A. Apnea, grunting, wheezing, and crackles
- B. Wheezing, cyanosis, hiccups, and crackles
- C. Cyanosis, retraction, wheezing, and hiccups
- D. Tachypnea, retraction, grunting, and cyanosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In newborns, respiratory distress can present with various signs and symptoms. The combination of tachypnea (rapid breathing), chest retractions (visible sinking of the skin in between or below the ribs with each breath), grunting (sound made during expiration), and cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes) are indicative of respiratory distress in a newborn. These signs suggest that the newborn is having difficulty breathing and may require immediate medical attention. It is essential to recognize and address respiratory distress promptly to ensure the well-being of the newborn.
A client is receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent complications? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30°.
- B. Apply restraints if the client becomes agitated.
- C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
- D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice in preventing complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. This action may disrupt the secure placement of the endotracheal tube and increase the risk of complications. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30° helps prevent aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. Applying restraints if the client becomes agitated helps maintain the safety of the client by preventing self-extubation or accidental dislodgement of tubes. Administering pantoprazole as prescribed helps prevent stress ulcers, a common complication in critically ill patients on mechanical ventilation.
The nurse is monitoring a client in the second stage of labor. What finding indicates the client is ready to push?
- A. Membranes have ruptured.
- B. Cervix is completely dilated.
- C. Client reports back pain.
- D. Contractions are 10 minutes apart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Complete cervical dilation marks the beginning of the second stage, signaling readiness to push.
The nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which symptom should be reported immediately?
- A. Increased fetal movements.
- B. Lower back pain and cramping.
- C. Mild swelling of the feet.
- D. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lower back pain and cramping may indicate preterm labor and should be reported promptly.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical ... effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertensi on
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia can result in some common side effects, one of which is pruritus (itching). Pruritus is a known side effect of the local anesthetics used in epidural anesthesia and is due to their effects on specialized receptors in the nervous system. Patients may experience itching, especially in the face, neck, and upper chest areas. Polyuria (increased urine output), hypertension (high blood pressure), and dry mouth are not typically associated side effects of epidural anesthesia.