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The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment on a client being treated for an asthma attack. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status is worsening based upon which finding?
- A. Loud wheezing
- B. Wheezing on expiration
- C. Noticeably diminished breath sounds
- D. Increased displays of emotional apprehension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Noticeably diminished breath sounds are an indication of severe obstruction and impending respiratory failure. Wheezing is not a reliable manifestation to determine the severity of an asthma attack. Clients with minor attacks may experience loud wheezes, whereas others with severe attacks may not wheeze. The client with severe asthma attacks may have no audible wheezing because of the decrease of airflow. For wheezing to occur, the client must be able to move sufficient air to produce breath sounds. Emotional apprehension is likely whatever the degree of respiratory distress being experienced.
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The nurse creates a discharge plan for a client diagnosed with peripheral neuropathy of the lower extremities. Which instructions should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply.
- A. Wear support or elastic stockings.
- B. Wear well-fitted shoes and walk barefoot when at home.
- C. Wear dark-colored stockings or socks and change them daily.
- D. Use a heating pad set at low setting on the feet if they feel cold.
- E. Apply lanolin or lubricating lotion to the legs and feet once or twice daily.
- F. Wash the feet and legs with mild soap and water and rinse and dry them well.
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is any functional or organic disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Clinical manifestations can include muscle weakness, stabbing pain, paresthesia or loss of sensation, impaired reflexes, and autonomic manifestations. Home care instructions include wearing support or elastic stockings for dependent edema, applying lanolin or lubricating lotion to the legs and feet once or twice daily, washing the feet and legs with mild soap and water and rinsing and drying them well, inspecting the legs and feet daily and reporting any skin changes or open areas to the primary health care provider.
A client diagnosed with pneumonia reports a decreased sense of taste that has greatly affected the motivation to eat and drink. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help increase the client's appetite?
- A. Offer in-between meal snacks.
- B. Provide three large meals daily.
- C. Provide mouth care before meals.
- D. Offer to sit with the client during meals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client with pneumonia may experience decreased taste sensation as a result of sputum expectoration. To minimize this adverse effect, the nurse should provide oral hygiene before meals. The client should also have small, frequent meals because of dyspnea. The remaining options will not address the issue of impaired sense of taste.
A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome has a prescription to be placed on a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) face mask. What intervention should the nurse implement for this procedure to be beneficial?
- A. Obtain baseline arterial blood gases.
- B. Obtain baseline pulse oximetry levels.
- C. Apply the mask to the face with a snug fit.
- D. Remove the mask for deep breathing exercises.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CPAP face mask must be applied over the nose and mouth with a snug fit, which is necessary to maintain positive pressure in the client's airways. The nurse obtains baseline respiratory assessments and arterial blood gases to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy, but these are not done to increase the effectiveness of the procedure. A disadvantage of the CPAP face mask is that the client must remove it for coughing, eating, or drinking. This removes the benefit of positive pressure in the airway each time it is removed.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt chest trauma. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cyanosis with accompanying pallor
- B. Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
- C. Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
- D. Haziness or 'white-out' appearance of lungs on chest radiograph
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24 to 48 hours after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases, tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventilation. Cyanosis and pallor are late findings and are the result of severe hypoxemia. Breath sounds in the early stages of ARDS are usually clear but then progress to diffuse crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Chest radiographic findings may be normal during the early stages but will show diffuse haziness or 'white-out' appearance in the later stages.
A client who has sustained a burn injury receives a prescription for a regular diet. Which is the best meal for the nurse to provide to the client to promote wound healing?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple, tea
- B. Chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, milk
- C. Veal chop, boiled potatoes, Jell-O, orange juice
- D. Pasta with tomato sauce, garlic bread, ginger ale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The meal with the best potential to promote wound healing includes nutrient-rich food choices, including protein, such as chicken and milk, and vitamin C, such as broccoli and strawberries. The remaining options include one or more items with a low nutritional value, especially the tea, jelly, Jell-O, and ginger ale.