Nokea
The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound (Choice A). This is because the client's situation suggests an incisional dehiscence, which is a surgical complication requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. Applying a sterile saline dressing helps protect the exposed bowel from contamination and dehydration.
Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) is important, but immediate wound care is the priority to prevent complications. Administering pain medication (Choice C) can wait until after the wound is properly dressed and assessed. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the urgent need to protect the exposed bowel and prevent infection.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
2. International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
3. INR is more specific for monitoring heparin therapy compared to other options.
4. Prothrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are not as accurate for heparin monitoring.
5. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, but INR is a more precise indicator of heparin's effect.
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 indicates deep unconsciousness, which is classified as a coma. A GCS score of 3 signifies the lowest possible level of consciousness and is associated with a very poor prognosis due to the severity of neurological impairment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased intracranial pressure may be present in comatose patients but is not solely indicated by a GCS score of 3. A good prognosis is unlikely with a GCS score of 3. Being unconscious with a GCS score of 3 does not equate to being conscious but disoriented as in choice C.
In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled (Choice C) because an elevated BNP level indicates increased fluid volume and pressure in the heart. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure patients, which can alleviate symptoms and improve cardiac function. Holding the dose (Choice D) could delay necessary treatment, potentially worsening the patient's condition. Measuring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not appropriate as it is used for chest pain related to angina, not for treating elevated BNP levels in heart failure.
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.