Nokea
The nurse is planning client teaching for a 35-year-old client with early alcoholic cirrhosis. Which self-care measure should the nurse emphasize for the client's recovery?
- A. Support group meetings.
- B. Vitamin B and multivitamin supplements.
- C. Diet with adequate calories and protein.
- D. Alcohol abstinence.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol abstinence is the most critical self-care measure for a client with early alcoholic cirrhosis. Continued alcohol consumption can lead to further liver damage and worsen the condition. Support group meetings may offer emotional support but do not address the root cause of the issue. While vitamin supplements and a nutritious diet are important for overall health, alcohol abstinence takes precedence in managing cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption.
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A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation and urinary retention.
- B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
- C. Sedation and blurred vision.
- D. Insomnia and dry mouth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
- C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, "I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep." The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
- A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
- B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
- C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
- D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.
A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I've been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN's best response?
- A. "Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately."
- B. "It's important to monitor your calorie intake carefully."
- C. "Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?"
- D. "The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.