Nokea
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- C. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common complication in chronic kidney disease. This can lead to serious issues like heart failure. Monitoring weight daily (A) is important, but specifically reporting significant gains promptly (C) is crucial. Limiting fluid intake (B) is important, but not the top priority. Increasing protein intake (D) may worsen kidney function, so it's not recommended.
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A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. Use manual pressure to express urine
- B. Perform the Crede maneuver
- C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
- D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. This is the appropriate instruction for a client with a flaccid bladder on a bladder training program. The Crede maneuver involves applying manual pressure on the bladder to assist with urine elimination. This technique helps to promote bladder emptying and prevent urinary retention.
A: Using manual pressure to express urine is not recommended as it can lead to urinary tract infections and damage to the bladder.
C: Applying an external urinary drainage device is not part of bladder training and does not address the issue of bladder emptying.
D: Taking a warm sitz bath twice a day does not directly address the client's flaccid bladder and is not a component of bladder training.
A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
- B. Twist the cast back and forth
- C. Shake powder into the cast
- D. Push a pencil under the cast edge
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast. This method helps to relieve itching by providing airflow without causing damage to the cast or skin. It is safe and effective.
Choice B: Twisting the cast back and forth may cause discomfort or injury to the child's arm.
Choice C: Shaking powder into the cast can create a mess and may lead to skin irritation or infection.
Choice D: Pushing a pencil under the cast edge can cause damage to the skin or lead to complications.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the nasal cannula
- B. Lower the oxygen rate
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
- D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lower the oxygen rate. Increasing oxygen flow too quickly can lead to oxygen toxicity in COPD patients, causing symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate will help alleviate the symptoms and prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula (choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (choice C) may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important but should follow lowering the oxygen rate to address the current symptoms.
A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator. This is the appropriate action for a college student with symptoms of a vaginal infection with a 'cottage cheese' appearance discharge, which is indicative of a yeast infection (most likely caused by Candida). Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida, hence addressing the root cause of the infection. It is essential to start with the treatment first to alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying infection.
C: Performing a glucose measurement is not necessary at this stage as the symptoms suggest a yeast infection, not diabetes.
D: Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this case as the symptoms are indicative of a yeast infection, not an STD.
The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
- A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
- B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
- C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
- D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus. This client should be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit because lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect pregnancy outcomes. The antepartal unit is better equipped to provide specialized care for high-risk pregnancies, which would be necessary for a client with lupus.
A: A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B - Hepatitis B does not directly impact pregnancy outcomes and does not require transfer to the antepartal unit.
C: A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella - Rubella is a viral infection that can be harmful during pregnancy, but the client should be managed in a different unit specialized in infectious diseases.
D: A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva - Herpes lesions of the vulva can be managed in the medical-surgical unit and do not necessarily require transfer to the antepartal unit unless there