Nokea
A nurse observes that a 38-year-old single father whose 11-year-old daughter is in the ICU is struggling to explain to his 6-year-old son the likelihood that the daughter will die. The young boy asks what will happen to his sister when she dies, but the father breaks down in tears and seems unable to respond. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to make?
- A. Suggest that the father contact his pastor, rabbi, or other spiritual leader for counself or him and his son
- B. Sit down with the father and son and share her own religious beliefs
- C. Ask the patients doctor to explain to the father the odds of the daughter surviving
- D. Leave the father and son to grieve alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should suggest that the father contact his spiritual leader for counseling. This option is appropriate as it recognizes the importance of spirituality in coping with difficult situations. It offers emotional support and guidance to the father and his son during a time of crisis.
Option B is incorrect as the nurse sharing her own religious beliefs may not align with the father's beliefs, potentially causing confusion or discomfort.
Option C is not the best intervention, as the doctor's role is primarily medical, and explaining the odds of survival may not address the emotional and spiritual needs of the family.
Option D is also incorrect as leaving the father and son to grieve alone does not provide them with the necessary support and guidance during such a challenging time.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the healthcare provider immediately if the patient develops:
- A. Oxygen saturation of 93%.
- B. Respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
- C. Green nasogastric tube drainage.
- D. Increased jugular venous distention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased jugular venous distention. In a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and on mechanical ventilation, increased jugular venous distention can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately as it may require urgent intervention to prevent further neurological deterioration.
A: Oxygen saturation of 93% is within the acceptable range for a patient on mechanical ventilation and may not require immediate notification.
B: Respirations of 20 breaths/minute are within normal limits for a ventilated patient and do not necessarily indicate a critical condition.
C: Green nasogastric tube drainage may indicate the presence of bile and could be related to gastrointestinal issues, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's neurological status.
Which action is best for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient?
- A. Ask the patient and family about their preferences for care during this time.
- B. Let the family decide whether to tell the patient about the terminal diagnosis.
- C. Obtain information from Filipino staff members about possible cultural needs.
- D. Remind family members that dying patients prefer to have someone at the bedside.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it promotes patient-centered care by involving the patient and family in decision-making, respecting their autonomy and preferences. This approach acknowledges the importance of cultural beliefs and values in end-of-life care. Choice B undermines patient autonomy by bypassing direct communication with the patient. Choice C assumes all Filipino individuals have the same cultural needs, which is not accurate. Choice D generalizes preferences without considering individual patient needs and wishes. Overall, choice A is the most appropriate as it aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and cultural competence.
A patient presents to the emergency department in acute re spiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation?
- A. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation
- B. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube
- C. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)
- D. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. In acute respiratory failure, especially in the setting of pneumonia and COPD, mechanical ventilation is often necessary to support breathing. Endotracheal intubation allows for precise control of airway patency, oxygenation, and ventilation. Emergency tracheostomy (choice A) is typically reserved for long-term ventilatory support. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (choice C) may not provide sufficient support in severe cases. Oxygen via bag-valve-mask (choice D) may not be adequate for ventilatory support in acute respiratory failure.
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
- A. Each time the patient initiates a breath, the ventilator d elivers a full preset tidal volume.
- B. For each spontaneous breath taken by the patient, the tidal volume is determined by the patient’s ability to generate negative pressure.
- C. The patient must have a respiratory drive, or no breaths will be delivered.
- D. There is pressure remaining in the lungs at the end of eaxbiprbi.rcaotmio/tens tt hat is measured in cm H O.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
A patient’s ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from.60 to.70, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the m ost likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure?
- A. Decrease in cardiac output
- B. Hypovolemia
- C. Increase in venous return
- D. Oxygen toxicity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemia. When the ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia by increasing FiO2 and PEEP, it can lead to increased oxygenation but also potentially decrease venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in blood pressure is most likely due to hypovolemia, as the increased PEEP can increase intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and preload, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent decrease in blood pressure. This choice is the most likely cause as the other options (A: Decrease in cardiac output, C: Increase in venous return, D: Oxygen toxicity) do not directly correlate with the changes in ventilator settings described in the question.