Nokea
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
- A. Dextrose 5%
- B. Lactated Ringer’s solution
- C. Normal saline solution
- D. Dextrose 5% and half-normal saline (0.45%)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal saline solution. Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions, so options A and D are incorrect. Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which can interact with phenytoin, leading to precipitation. Therefore, option B is also incorrect. Normal saline is the most compatible diluent for phenytoin, maintaining the drug's stability and effectiveness. It is essential to use the appropriate diluent to prevent adverse reactions or drug interactions.
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A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
- A. X-ray
- B. Both A and B
- C. Surgical
- D. Breast self examination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
- A. Completes a comprehensive database
- B. Identifies pertinent nursing diagnoses
- C. Intervenes based on priorities of patient care
- D. Determines whether outcomes have been achieved
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because completing a comprehensive database is part of the first phase of the nursing process, which is assessment. During assessment, the nurse gathers data about the patient's health status. This information is crucial for identifying health problems, developing nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes.
Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses is part of the second phase, which is diagnosis. Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on priorities of patient care is part of the third phase, which is planning. Choice D is incorrect because determining whether outcomes have been achieved is part of the fourth phase, which is evaluation.
Which screening test for colorectal cancer should the nurse recommend?
- A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test
- B. Annual digital examination after age 50
- C. Barium enema after age 50
- D. Proctosigmoidoscopy after age 50
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct screening test for colorectal cancer is D: Proctosigmoidoscopy after age 50. This test allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, aiding in the detection of polyps or tumors. It is recommended for individuals over 50 years old to screen for colorectal cancer. A: CEA test is not a primary screening tool but rather used for monitoring cancer progression. B: Annual digital examination is not sufficient for colorectal cancer screening. C: Barium enema is less effective compared to colonoscopy for detecting abnormalities in the colon.
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
- A. Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours
- B. Respiratory rate of 8breaths/min
- C. Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min
- D. Pupils constricted and equal A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET J
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest.
A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding.
C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically.
D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
- A. Esophagostomy
- B. Thymectomy
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Spleenectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis.
Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.