Nokea
The nurse is preparing to administer 37.5 mg of meperidine (Demerol) IM to a client who is having pain. The medication comes in a 50-mg/mL vial. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the pharmacist to bring the correct vial.
- B. Have another nurse verify wastage of medication.
- C. Administer one (1) mL of medication to the client.
- D. Request the HCP to increase the client's dose.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dose: 37.5 mg / 50 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Wasting 0.25 mL requires verification by another nurse, per narcotic protocols.
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The health care provider has written 'Morphine sulfate 2 mgs IV every 3-4 hours prn for pain' on the chart of a child weighing 22 lb. (10 kg). What is the nurse's initial action?
- A. Check with the pharmacist
- B. Hold the medication and contact the provider
- C. Administer the prescribed dose as ordered
- D. Give the dose every 6-8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hold the medication and contact the provider. The usual pediatric dose of morphine is 0.1 mg/kg every 3 to 4 hours. At 10 kg, this child typically should receive 1.0 mg every 3 to 4 hours.
The client is complaining of nausea, and the nurse administers the antiemetic promethazine (Phenergan), IVP. Which intervention has priority for this client after administering this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to call the nurse before getting out of bed.
- B. Evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
- D. Tell the client not to eat or drink for at least one (1) hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Promethazine causes sedation and orthostatic hypotension; instructing to call before ambulating prevents falls, the priority post-IVP.
The clinic nurse is teaching an adult male who has AIDS. He is receiving zidovudine. Which statement he makes indicates that he understands the medication regimen?
- A. If I get a sore throat and it is hard to swallow my capsules, I can empty the capsule into applesauce.
- B. I am hopeful that this drug will get rid of this awful disease.
- C. I understand I might need a transfusion.
- D. I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol), not aspirin, if I get a fever.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zidovudine can cause bone marrow suppression; acetaminophen is safer than aspirin, which increases bleeding risk.
You are caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on Heparin IV. The latest APTT is 50 seconds. If the laboratory normal range is 16-24 seconds, you would anticipate
- A. maintaining the current heparin dose
- B. increasing the heparin as it does not appear therapeutic
- C. giving protamine sulfate as an antidote
- D. repeating the blood test 1 hour after giving heparin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: maintaining the current heparin dose. The range for a therapeutic APTT is 1.5-2 times the control. Therefore the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of Heparin.
A post-operative client has a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. What should the nurse recognize as a primary effect of this combination?
- A. Enhanced pain relief
- B. Minimized side effects
- C. Prevention of drug tolerance
- D. Increased onset of action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enhanced pain relief. Combination of analgesics with different mechanisms of action can afford greater pain relief.