The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)
- A. 10
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is diagnosed with myxedema coma?
- A. Intravenous administration of thyroid hormones
- B. Oral administration of hypnotic agents
- C. Intravenous bolus of hydrocortisone
- D. Subcutaneous administration of vitamin K
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intravenous administration of thyroid hormones. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism that necessitates immediate replacement of thyroid hormones. Administering thyroid hormones intravenously ensures rapid absorption and effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B, oral administration of hypnotic agents, is incorrect as it does not address the primary issue of thyroid hormone deficiency in myxedema coma. Choice C, intravenous bolus of hydrocortisone, is not the appropriate treatment for myxedema coma as adrenal insufficiency is not the primary concern in this condition. Choice D, subcutaneous administration of vitamin K, is unrelated to the management of myxedema coma and does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency that characterizes this condition.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks
- B. Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection
- C. Resume normal activities as soon as possible
- D. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.
Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that healing from the injury can take many months.
- B. Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.
- C. Encourage the client to verbalize her fears about the pain.
- D. Complete an assessment of the client's functional ability.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.
A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Presence of uremic frost
- D. Decreased mentation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.