Nokea
The nurse is preparing to administer amiodarone. Which of the following laboratory test results should the nurse monitor during the therapy?
- A. white blood cell (WBC) count
- B. serum glucose level
- C. serum uric acid level
- D. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause thyroid dysfunction, so TSH levels should be monitored. WBC, glucose, and uric acid are not typically affected.
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While reviewing a client's medication list, the nurse understands which prescribed medication(s) is/are classified as calcium channel blockers. Select all that apply.
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Propranolol
- C. Verapamil
- D. Hydralazine
- E. Digoxin
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Nifedipine and verapamil are calcium channel blockers used to treat hypertension and angina. Propranolol is a beta-blocker, hydralazine is a vasodilator, and digoxin is a cardiac glycoside.
The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client who was prescribed niacin. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, would indicate effective teaching?
- A. This medication may increase my blood pressure.
- B. I may experience flushing while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may raise my total cholesterol.
- D. I may feel fatigued and tired after taking this medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Niacin commonly causes flushing, a harmless but notable side effect, indicating effective teaching. It does not increase blood pressure or cholesterol and is not typically associated with fatigue.
The nurse reviews newly prescribed laboratory tests and medications for the following clients. Which of the laboratory tests and prescriptions should the nurse question?
- A. Liver function tests (LFTs) for a client prescribed atorvastatin
- B. International normalized ratio (INR) for a client prescribed rivaroxaban
- C. Serum creatinine level for a client prescribed lisinopril
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1C) level for a client prescribed olanzapine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: INR monitoring is not typically required for rivaroxaban, a direct oral anticoagulant, as it does not affect INR. LFTs for atorvastatin, creatinine for lisinopril, and HgbA1C for olanzapine are appropriate monitoring tests.
The emergency department nurse is caring for a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm at risk of rupturing. The nurse will anticipate the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) to prescribe
- A. esmolol
- B. dexamethasone
- C. heparin
- D. pantoprazole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Esmolol, a short-acting beta-blocker, is used to control blood pressure and reduce aortic wall stress in an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Dexamethasone, heparin, and pantoprazole are not indicated.
The nurse is administering prescribed furosemide to a client. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be consistent with the client developing fluid volume deficit? Select all that apply.
- A. tachycardia
- B. bradypnea
- C. weight gain
- D. decreased urine output
- E. tenting of the skin
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause fluid volume deficit, leading to tachycardia (increased heart rate to compensate for reduced volume), decreased urine output (due to dehydration), and tenting of the skin (a sign of dehydration). Bradypnea and weight gain are not typical signs of fluid volume deficit.