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The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
- B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
- C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
- D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.
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A patient asks the nurse about taking calcium supplements to avoid hypocalcemia. The nurse will suggest that the patient follow which instruction?
- A. Take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement.
- B. Take calcium along with phosphorus to improve absorption.
- C. Take calcium with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
- D. Use aspirin instead of acetaminophen when taking calcium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement. Vitamin D enhances the absorption of calcium in the body, making it an essential component for calcium utilization. Choice B is incorrect because calcium and phosphorus have an inverse relationship, where an increased level of one mineral decreases the level of the other, so taking them together may not be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because antacids often contain magnesium, which can promote calcium loss instead of absorption. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin can alter vitamin D levels and interfere with calcium absorption, so it is not recommended when taking calcium supplements.
A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Viral hepatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.
A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.
A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient's serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the patient's provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
- B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
- C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
- D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.
After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
- B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
- C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
- D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.