The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
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A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?
- A. purulent exudate
- B. warmth
- C. skin blanching
- D. bleeding
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.
A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Menses overdue
- C. Soft tender abdomen
- D. Heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.
A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage dairy alternatives.
- B. Monitor intake of vitamin D.
- C. Increase intake of caffeinated drinks.
- D. Assist the patient with daily activities.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?
- A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
- B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
- C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
- D. When the patient requests it.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.