Nokea
The nurse is preparing to administer epoetin alfa to the client who has chemotherapy-associated anemia. The nurse recognizes the need to consult with the HCP before administration when the client makes which statements?
- A. “I spend most of my days lying on the couch.”
- B. “I usually eat a lot of salads for my main meals.”
- C. “I seem to have an aversion to eating eggs right now.”
- D. “I developed a blood clot in my leg on my last admission.”
- E. “I hope this helps so I don’t have to have a blood transfusion.”
Correct Answer: A, D
Rationale: Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents, such as epoetin alfa (Epogen), can cause thromboembolic events. It would be concerning if the client had limited activity because this could further increase the client’s risk of a thromboembolic event. B. Dark green, leafy vegetables are high in iron and help with Hgb synthesis and therefore would be beneficial. C. Eggs are high in iron, but there are other food sources high in iron that the client can consume if an aversion exists. D. A history of a thromboembolic event and use of epoetin alfa increase the client’s risk for another thromboembolic event. E. The use of epoetin alfa is recommended as a treatment option for clients with chemotherapy-associated anemia and an Hgb concentration that is approaching, or has fallen below, 10 g/dL, to increase the Hgb level and decrease the need for a transfusion.
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The client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia comes to the emergency department complaining of joint pain throughout the body. The oral temperature is 102.4°F and the pulse oximeter reading is 91%. Which action should the emergency department nurse implement first?
- A. Request arterial blood gases STAT.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Start an IV with an 18-gauge angiocath.
- D. Prepare to administer analgesics as ordered.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SpO2 91% and fever suggest hypoxia in SCA crisis; oxygen via cannula (B) addresses this first. ABGs (A), IV (C), and analgesics (D) follow to confirm hypoxia, hydrate, and manage pain.
A 19-year-old college student reports to the health service with a sore throat, malaise, and fever of four days in duration. Examination shows cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Temperature is 103°F. Blood is positive for heterophil antibody agglutination test. Which condition does the nurse expect this student to have?
- A. Streptococcal sore throat
- B. Infectious mononucleosis
- C. Rubella
- D. Influenza
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms and positive heterophil antibody test are diagnostic for infectious mononucleosis.
The nurse receives orders after notifying an HCP about the client who has tachycardia, diaphoresis, and an elevated temperature after treatments for ALL. Which order should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Portable chest x-ray in the client’s room
- B. Urine culture, and blood cultures x 2
- C. Vancomycin 500 mg IV q6h
- D. Filgrastim 0.3 mg subcut daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. The results of the portable CXR will help determine if the cause is a respiratory infection. It will not change the treatment. B. Urine and blood cultures are priority; these should be obtained before antibiotics are administered. C. National recommendations are to administer broad-spectrum antibiotics such as vancomycin (Vancocin) within 1 hour of a suspected infection diagnosis. The antibiotics may be changed after culture and sensitivity reports are available (usually 24 to 48 hours). D. It takes 4 days for filgrastim (Neupogen) to return the neutrophil count to baseline, so this is not priority. Filgrastim should not be given within 24 hours of cytotoxic chemotherapy.
The nurse is working in a blood bank facility procuring units of blood from donors. Which client would not be a candidate to donate blood?
- A. The client who had wisdom teeth removed a week ago.
- B. The nursing student who received a measles immunization two (2) months ago.
- C. The mother with a six (6)-week-old newborn.
- D. The client who developed an allergy to aspirin in childhood.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Recent childbirth (C) (within 6 months) disqualifies blood donation due to anemia risk. Wisdom teeth (A), immunization (B), and aspirin allergy (D) are not contraindications.
A coworker being oriented by another nurse states, “I’m confused; a physician told me that graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) symptoms were desirable for a particular client after a bone marrow transplant.” Which should be the nurse’s best response?
- A. “GVHD isn’t desirable. Maybe you heard the physician wrong.”
- B. “That’s interesting. Did the client have a gastrointestinal tumor?”
- C. “That’s right if the transplant involved using autologous stem cells.”
- D. “GVHD is sometimes desirable with a hematological malignancy.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A. GVHD is desirable if the primary source is hematological. B. Bone marrow transplant is not a treatment for GI malignancies unless the primary source is hematological. C. GVHD does not occur when a person receives autologous (his or her own) cells during a transplant. D. GVHD is sometimes desirable with a hematological malignancy. The donor lymphocytes can mount a reaction against any lingering tumor cells and destroy them.