Nokea
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with type 2 diabetes. Which site is most appropriate for subcutaneous injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle.
- B. Lower back.
- C. Abdomen.
- D. Upper thigh.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The abdomen provides consistent absorption for subcutaneous insulin due to its stable subcutaneous tissue and is a preferred site.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client has been taking imipramine [Tofranil] for his depression for 2 days. His sister asks the nurse, 'Why is he still so depressed?' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Your brother is experiencing a very serious depression.
- B. I'll be sure to convey your concern to his physician.
- C. It takes 2 to 4 weeks for the drug to reach its full effect.
- D. Perhaps we need to change his medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically requires 2 to 4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects as it needs time to alter neurotransmitter levels. This response educates the sister accurately about the medication's timeline.
Your client is in the special care area of your hospital with multiple trauma and severe bodily burns. This 45 year old male client has an advance directive that states that the client wants all life saving measures including cardiopulmonary resuscitation and advance cardiac life support, including mechanical ventilation. As you are caring for the client, the client has a complete cardiac and respiratory arrest. This client has little of no chance for survival and they are facing imminent death according to your professional judgement, knowledge of pathophysiology and your critical thinking. You believe that all life saving measures for this client would be futile. What is the first thing that you, as the nurse, should do?
- A. Call the doctor and advise them that the client's physical status has significantly changed and that they have just had a cardiopulmonary arrest.
- B. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation other emergency life saving measures.
- C. Notify the family of the client's condition and ask them what they should be done for the client.
- D. Insure that the client is without any distressing signs and symptoms at the end of life.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client's advance directive clearly states a desire for all life-saving measures, including CPR and advanced cardiac life support. Despite the nurse's professional judgment about futility, the nurse is legally and ethically obligated to follow the advance directive and initiate CPR immediately in the event of a cardiac and respiratory arrest. Notifying the doctor or family or ensuring comfort are secondary actions after initiating life-saving measures as per the client's documented wishes.
Which of the following statements best explains why the nurse should evaluate gastric residual in administering the client's next enteral feeding?
- A. To determine how well nutrients are being absorbed
- B. To determine if the client is receiving enough feeding
- C. To prevent overdistention of the stomach
- D. To prevent mixing undigested formula with partially digested formula
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Evaluating gastric residual prevents overdistention of the stomach, which can lead to aspiration or discomfort. It does not directly assess nutrient absorption or feeding adequacy.
Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is prescribed postoperatively. The nurse should evaluate the drug's therapeutic effect when the client expresses relief from which of the following?
- A. Nausea.
- B. Dizziness.
- C. Abdominal spasms.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prochlorperazine is primarily used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, so relief from nausea indicates therapeutic effectiveness.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypercapnia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Pulmonary edema.
- D. Metabolic alkalosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD are at risk for hypercapnia (elevated CO2 levels) during pneumonia due to impaired gas exchange, which can worsen respiratory distress.