The nurse is preparing to care for the client immediately after a Whipple procedure. The nurse should plan to include which action?
- A. Monitor the blood glucose levels
- B. Administer enteral feedings
- C. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of saline
- D. Assist with bowel elimination within 8 hours of surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. The Whipple procedure induces insulin-dependent diabetes because the proximal pancreas is resected. Thus, the blood glucose levels should be monitored closely starting immediately after surgery. B. Parenteral (not enteral) feedings are the method of choice for providing nutrition immediately after surgery. C. The NG tube is strategically placed during surgery and should not be irrigated without a surgeon’s order. With an order, gentle irrigation with 10 to 20 mL of NS is appropriate. D. Since this surgery reshapes the GI tract, the client will not have peristalsis and bowel movements for several days.
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The client is diagnosed with peritonitis. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse the client's condition is improving?
- A. The client is using more pain medication on a daily basis.
- B. The client's nasogastric tube is draining coffee-ground material.
- C. The client has a decrease in temperature and a soft abdomen.
- D. The client has had two (2) soft-formed bowel movements.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in temperature and a soft abdomen indicate resolving infection and inflammation in peritonitis. Increased pain medication, coffee-ground drainage, and bowel movements are not improvement signs.
Which data should the nurse report to the healthcare provider when assessing the oral cavity of an elderly client?
- A. The client's tongue is rough and beefy red.
- B. The client's tonsils are +1 on a grading scale.
- C. The client's mucosa is pink and moist.
- D. The client's uvula rises with the mouth open.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A rough, beefy red tongue may indicate vitamin B12 deficiency or glossitis, warranting HCP notification. Normal tonsil size, pink/moist mucosa, and uvula movement are expected findings.
The nurse is assessing the client in end-stage liver failure who is diagnosed with portal hypertension. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Assess the abdomen for a tympanic wave.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- C. Percuss the liver for size and location.
- D. Weigh the client twice each week.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure detects complications of portal hypertension, like variceal bleeding. Tympanic wave is incorrect, liver percussion is less urgent, and weight checks are secondary.
The client being admitted from the emergency department is diagnosed with a fecal impaction. Which nursing intervention should be implemented?
- A. Administer an antidiarrheal medication every day and prn.
- B. Perform bowel training every two (2) hours.
- C. Administer an oil retention enema.
- D. Prepare for an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series x-ray.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oil retention enema softens and facilitates removal of impacted stool. Antidiarrheals are contraindicated, bowel training is long-term, and UGI is irrelevant.
The client is diagnosed with end-stage liver failure. The client asks the nurse, 'Why is my doctor decreasing the doses of my medications?' Which statement is the nurse's best response?
- A. You are worried because your doctor has decreased the dosage.
- B. You really should ask your doctor. I am sure there is a good reason.
- C. You may have an overdose of the medications because your liver is damaged.
- D. The half-life of the medications is altered because the liver is damaged.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: End-stage liver failure impairs drug metabolism, prolonging medication half-life, so doses are reduced to prevent toxicity. Overdose is a consequence, not the rationale, and other responses are less informative.
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