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The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of hereditary angioedema. When planning this patients care, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized?
- A. Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing
- B. Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity
- C. Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions
- D. Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction. This should be prioritized because hereditary angioedema can lead to swelling in the airway, potentially causing respiratory distress and compromising gas exchange. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate threat to the patient's respiratory function.
A: Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing - While skin sloughing can occur with hereditary angioedema, it is not the priority over ensuring adequate gas exchange.
B: Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity - Pain management is important, but addressing airway obstruction takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory compromise.
C: Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions - Skin integrity issues may be present but do not pose as immediate a threat as airway obstruction.
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A woman aged 48 years comes to the clinic because she has discovered a lump in her breast. After diagnostic testing, the woman receives a diagnosis of breast cancer. The woman asks the nurse when her teenage daughters should begin mammography. What is the nurses best advice?
- A. Age 28
- B. Age 35
- C. Age 38
- D. Age 48
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Age 48. This recommendation aligns with the current guidelines from major health organizations, such as the American Cancer Society, which suggest that women at average risk should start regular mammograms at age 45 to 54. Screening before age 45 may lead to unnecessary procedures due to false positives. Beginning at age 48 allows for early detection without subjecting the daughters to unnecessary testing at a younger age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they suggest starting mammography at younger ages than recommended, which can increase the likelihood of false positives and unnecessary interventions.
A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?
- A. Oral temperature of 100F
- B. Tachypnea and restlessness
- C. Frequent loose stools
- D. Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure.
Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition.
Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario.
Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
A patient has lost most of her vision as a result of macular degeneration. When attempting to meet this patients psychosocial needs, what nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the patient to focus on her use of her other senses.
- B. Assess and promote the patients coping skills during interactions with the patient.
- C. Emphasize that her lifestyle will be unchanged once she adapts to her vision loss.
- D. Promote the patients hope for recovery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and promoting the patient's coping skills is essential in addressing the psychosocial needs of a patient with macular degeneration. By understanding how the patient is coping with the vision loss, the nurse can tailor interventions to support the patient effectively. This approach acknowledges the patient's emotional responses and helps them navigate the challenges associated with the condition.
Choice A is incorrect as solely focusing on other senses may not address the psychological impact of vision loss. Choice C is incorrect as it dismisses the significant lifestyle changes the patient may experience. Choice D is incorrect as promoting hope for recovery may not be realistic in the case of irreversible conditions like macular degeneration.
After providing care, a nurse charts in the patient’srecord. Which entry will the nurse document?
- A. Appears restless when sitting in the chair
- B. Drank adequate amounts of water
- C. Apparently is asleep with eyes closed
- D. Skin pale and cool
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting the skin condition is an objective assessment that provides vital information about the patient's health status. Pale and cool skin may indicate poor perfusion or circulation issues. This observation is crucial for monitoring the patient's condition and identifying any potential concerns. Choices A, B, and C are subjective and do not provide specific or relevant information related to the patient's overall health status or response to care. Without objective data like skin appearance, it would be challenging to assess the patient's condition accurately.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed?
- A. Analgesia should be withheld unless the patients pain becomes unbearable.
- B. Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain.
- C. All analgesics should be given on a PRN, rather than scheduled, basis.
- D. Opioid analgesics should be avoided and NSAIDs exclusively provided.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. After undergoing a wide excision of the vulva, the patient is likely to experience significant pain. Scheduled analgesia ensures that the patient receives pain relief consistently, preventing pain from becoming severe. This approach helps to maintain a therapeutic level of pain control and improves patient comfort and satisfaction.
Choice A is incorrect because withholding analgesia until the pain becomes unbearable can lead to unnecessary suffering and poor pain management. Choice C is incorrect as PRN dosing may result in inadequate pain relief and fluctuations in pain control. Choice D is incorrect as opioids are often necessary for postoperative pain management, and NSAIDs alone may not provide sufficient relief for the level of pain associated with a wide excision surgery.