The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
- D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or other medications that increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that show understanding of warfarin therapy, such as the importance of avoiding foods high in vitamin K, taking medication consistently, and using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
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A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?
- A. Case manager - responsible for overseeing a case load of clients but does not provide direct client care
- B. Client educator
- C. Client advocate
- D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Document the finding in the client's chart.
- D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.
A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
- B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
- C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
- D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
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