Nokea
The nurse is providing teaching to the client receiving a thiazide diuretic. Which points should the nurse plan to include? Select all that apply.
- A. Take the radial pulse before setting up the medication.
- B. Include fruits such as melons and bananas in the diet.
- C. Report side effects such as muscle cramps, nausea, or a skin rash.
- D. Take the last dose at bedtime when fluids are at the highest level.
- E. Avoid high-fat foods; thiazide diuretics increase cholesterol levels.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: A: It is unnecessary for the client to monitor the pulse prior to taking thiazide diuretics. B: Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia, and potassium-rich foods can help maintain potassium levels. C: Muscle cramps are a sign of possible medication side effects of hypokalemia and hypocalcemia. Nausea and rash are also medication side effects. D: A diuretic taken at bedtime can cause nocturia and loss of sleep. The usual timing of the last daily dose of a diuretic is at suppertime. E: Thiazide diuretics can increase serum cholesterol, LDL, and triglyceride levels, so teaching the client to avoid high-fat foods will help maintain cholesterol levels.
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The nurse is caring for an elderly client and providing education. Which of the following would be least appropriate?
- A. The nurse speaks in a loud voice.
- B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
- C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
- D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should not speak in a loud voice just because the client is elderly. The nurse should assess the client for a hearing impairment to see if additional assistance is required. However, elderly clients tend to require more time to process information, since their reaction time is slower, and they may benefit from more frequent, shorter sessions as they fatigue easily. Elderly clients are usually capable of absorbing supplemental written resources.
The client calls the clinic to discuss medications being taken and possible adverse effects. The nurse should conclude that the client is experiencing a common side effect of sertraline when the client provides which information?
- A. States last bowel movement was 5 days ago
- B. Feeling palpitations and an irregular heartbeat
- C. BP was 170/90 mm Hg when taken one day ago
- D. States needing to drink fluids more often than usual
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should consider that the client has a dry mouth when stating the need to drink fluids more often than usual. Dry mouth is a common side effect of sertraline (Zoloft).
Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?
- A. erythrocytosis
- B. leukocytosis
- C. polycythemia
- D. thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood. Polycythemia is also an excess of red blood cells and is a synonym for erythrocytosis. With chemotherapy there is a decrease in red and white blood cells, not an increase.
The mother asks the nurse why the anticonvulsant valproic acid is being prescribed for her adolescent who is beginning therapy for control of aggressive behaviors. The nurse's response is based on the fact that valproic acid is helpful in reducing manic and impulsive behavior by what mechanism of action?
- A. Block the effects of dopamine at the postsynaptic neuron
- B. Enhance the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the CNS
- C. Alter sodium channels in the neurons, thus decreasing nerve impulse transmission
- D. Increase gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels to inhibit CNS neurotransmission
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproic acid (Depakote) increases levels of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
The 4-year-old with meningitis is to receive ceftriaxone 750 mg IVPB over 30 minutes. The pharmacy provided 750 mg in 50 mL D5W to be infused IVPB through a microdrip infusion system (tubing drop factor 60 gtt/min). At what rate, in gtt per min, should the nurse program the IVPB pump?
Correct Answer: 100
Rationale: Volume to be infused is 50 mL over 30 minutes. Calculate mL/min: 50 mL/ 30 min = 1.6667 mL/min. Convert to gtt/min using the drop factor: 1.6667 mL/min x 60 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min.