Nokea
The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client receiving oxybutynin for overactive bladder. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is required?
- A. I am looking forward to our summer vacation at the beach
- B. I plan to eat more fruits and vegetables to prevent constipation
- C. I should not drive until I know how this drug affects me
- D. I will drink at least 6-8 glasses of water daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Planning a beach vacation suggests unawareness of oxybutynin’s heat intolerance side effect, increasing dehydration risk. Preventing constipation, avoiding driving, and adequate hydration are correct.
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The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with degenerative joint disease and a new prescription for naproxen. What instructions regarding this drug does the nurse include? Select all that apply.
- A. Avoid driving while taking this medicine
- B. Change positions slowly
- C. Discontinue immediately if suicidal thoughts occur
- D. Notify the health care provider of tarry stools
- E. Take the medicine with food
Correct Answer: D,E
Rationale: Tarry stools indicate potential GI bleeding, a serious naproxen side effect, and taking with food reduces GI irritation. Driving, position changes, and suicidal thoughts are not primary concerns with naproxen.
The doctor has ordered an IV of magnesium sulfate for a G1 P0 with preeclampsia. Which of the following symptoms is an expected side effect of magnesium sulfate?
- A. Oliguria
- B. Hypersomnolence
- C. Hyporeflexia
- D. Bradypnea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyporeflexia is an expected side effect of magnesium sulfate, used to monitor for toxicity in preeclampsia treatment.
The nurse recognizes which of the following factors as possibly contributing to a sentinel event?
- A. Administered warfarin to a client with an INR of 6.0
- B. Administered flumazenil to a client who overdosed on lorazepam
- C. Initiated nitroprusside infusion in a client with blood pressure of 210/112 mm Hg
- D. Administered insulin/dextrose to a client with potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L (7.2 mmol/L)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering warfarin with an INR of 6.0 (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0) risks severe bleeding, a sentinel event. Flumazenil is appropriate for lorazepam overdose, nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis, and insulin/dextrose for hyperkalemia are correct interventions.
The nurse is caring for a client who has developed cardiac tamponade. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Widening pulse pressure
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Distended neck veins
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Distended neck veins. Cardiac tamponade causes venous congestion, leading to distended neck veins.
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
- A. A diaphragm will best prevent pregnancy because oral contraceptives are rendered ineffective by increased glucose levels.
- B. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that will not alter the blood glucose levels.
- C. A diaphragm will provide intrauterine contraception by preventing implantation of the embryo.
- D. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that prevents the egg from being released from the ovary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.